Physics 9702/12 — May/June 2024
Cambridge AS Level · Multiple Choice (AS Level) · answer key with instant marking and worked solutions
Topics Work, Energy and Power · Waves · Superposition · Electricity · Physical Quantities and Units · Dynamics · +5 more
Tap an option under each question to check it — your score builds as you go.
What is a scalar quantity?
Options
A a quantity that can be represented as two perpendicular components
B a quantity that does not require a unit
C a quantity without a direction
D a quantity without a magnitude
A scalar quantity has magnitude only and no direction.
So the correct option is C.
C
Background Concept
A physical quantity describes something measurable and is usually stated with a magnitude and a unit. Quantities come in two main types:
- Scalar: described completely by magnitude only (with a unit).
- Vector: requires magnitude and direction to be fully described.
Examples:
- Scalars: mass, time, temperature, energy, speed.
- Vectors: displacement, velocity, acceleration, force.
Understanding the Question
The question asks for the definition of a scalar quantity. You must choose which option matches “magnitude only” (i.e. no direction).
Approach
Recall the scalar definition and compare it against each option. Reject statements that describe vectors or that are physically impossible (e.g. “no unit” or “no magnitude”).
Step-by-Step Reasoning
- Option A: “represented as two perpendicular components” describes a vector (vectors can be resolved into components). Not a scalar.
- Option B: “does not require a unit” is false: scalars still have units (e.g. mass in kg, time in s).
- Option C: “without a direction” matches the defining feature of a scalar (magnitude only).
- Option D: “without a magnitude” cannot describe a meaningful physical quantity.
Therefore, the correct choice is C.
Key Takeaways
- A scalar has magnitude only.
- A vector has magnitude and direction and can be resolved into components.
Common Mistakes
- Choosing A because you remember “components” from mechanics: components are for vectors, not scalars.
- Thinking a scalar “does not need a unit”: almost all physical quantities, scalar or vector, require units.
Things to Be Careful About
- “No direction” is the key phrase for scalars.
- Both scalars and vectors have magnitudes and units; the difference is the direction.
The value of quantity has a percentage uncertainty of .
The value of quantity has a percentage uncertainty of .
The value of a quantity is calculated from the values of and .
The value of has a percentage uncertainty of .
What could be the relationship between , and ?
Options
A
B
C
D
Working
For ,
Answer
D
D
Background Concept
For quantities with small uncertainties:
- If or then the fractional (and hence percentage) uncertainties add:
- If a quantity is raised to a power, , then the fractional uncertainty is multiplied by :
Constants (such as 2 in ) are treated as exact and do not contribute to the percentage uncertainty.
Understanding the Question
You are told:
- has a percentage uncertainty of .
- has a percentage uncertainty of .
- A derived quantity (calculated using and ) has a percentage uncertainty of .
The task is to choose, from the given formulas, which one would produce uncertainty when uncertainties are combined correctly.
Approach
For each option, use:
- “add percentage uncertainties” for multiplication/division,
- “multiply the percentage uncertainty by the power” when a variable is squared.
Then compare the resulting percentage uncertainty with the required .
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Option A:
Not .
Option B:
The factor 2 is a constant, so uncertainty is the same as for :
Not .
Option C:
doubles the percentage uncertainty from :
Then for division, add uncertainties:
Not .
Option D:
doubles the percentage uncertainty from :
Then for division:
This matches, so option D is correct.
Key Takeaways
- For products and quotients, percentage uncertainties add.
- For powers, multiply the percentage uncertainty by the power.
- Multiplying by an exact constant does not change percentage uncertainty.
Common Mistakes
- Treating as having a larger uncertainty because of the 2 (constants do not add uncertainty).
- Forgetting to multiply the uncertainty by 2 when a quantity is squared.
- Subtracting percentage uncertainties for division (they still add).
Things to Be Careful About
- Use absolute values of powers when applying the power rule (e.g. still gives a factor of 2).
- These rules assume uncertainties are small and combine approximately (the standard A-Level method).
- Ensure you are combining percentage (or fractional) uncertainties, not absolute uncertainties, for multiplication/division.
A football is kicked so that it moves vertically upwards through the air.
What is the variation in the air resistance and the resultant force acting on the ball as it moves vertically upwards?
Options
| air resistance | resultant force | |
|---|---|---|
| A | decreases | decreases |
| B | decreases | increases |
| C | increases | decreases |
| D | increases | increases |
Working
As the ball rises, its speed decreases, so air resistance (opposing the upward motion) decreases.
Weight is constant and acts downward. While moving up, both weight and air resistance act downward, so
As decreases, the resultant downward force decreases.
Answer
A
A
Background Concept
Air resistance (drag) is a force exerted by the air that opposes the direction of motion through the air. For typical speeds in air, the magnitude of drag increases with speed (often approximately proportional to or ).
The resultant (net) force on an object is the vector sum of all forces acting on it:
Weight acts downward and is approximately constant during the motion.
Understanding the Question
A football has been kicked vertically upward. While it is moving upward:
- its velocity is upward,
- its speed is decreasing (it is slowing down as it rises),
- air resistance acts opposite to the motion (so it acts downward),
- weight acts downward.
The question asks how (i) the air resistance and (ii) the resultant force change as the ball rises.
Approach
- Decide the direction of air resistance while the ball is moving upward.
- Use the fact that the ball’s speed decreases as it goes up to infer how the magnitude of drag changes.
- Add the forces (weight + drag) to see how the magnitude of the resultant force changes.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
- While the ball is moving upward, air resistance acts downward (opposes the upward velocity).
- As the ball rises, it slows down, so its speed decreases.
- Since drag increases with speed, a decreasing speed means the drag force decreases.
- The forces on the ball while it is rising are both downward:
- weight (constant),
- drag (decreasing).
- Therefore the resultant downward force is
- As decreases, the sum decreases, so the resultant force decreases (still downward).
So: air resistance decreases; resultant force decreases → option A.
Key Takeaways
- Drag always acts opposite the direction of motion.
- If speed decreases, drag decreases.
- The resultant force is the vector sum; here weight and drag act in the same direction while the ball rises.
Common Mistakes
- Saying drag acts upward because the ball is moving upward (it acts opposite to motion, so it is downward here).
- Thinking the resultant force must decrease because the acceleration decreases; in fact the acceleration magnitude also decreases here because drag decreases, but you must justify it via forces.
- Forgetting to include weight when considering the resultant force.
Things to Be Careful About
- “Resultant force” means net force, not just air resistance.
- The direction matters: while moving up, both forces are downward; after the ball starts falling, drag reverses direction.
- The question asks for variation (increase/decrease), not the direction.
Which statement is not correct?
Options
A Acceleration can be determined from the gradient of a velocity–time graph.
B Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity.
C Displacement can be determined from the area under a velocity–time graph.
D Velocity is the rate of change of distance.
Working
- A: gradient of a – graph gives (correct).
- B: is the rate of change of velocity (correct).
- C: area under a – graph is which is displacement (correct).
- D: velocity is , not rate of change of distance (distance relates to speed).
Answer
D
D
Background Concept
Key kinematics definitions:
- Velocity is the rate of change of displacement :
- Speed is the rate of change of distance (distance is a scalar and does not include direction).
- Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity:
For a velocity–time graph:
- The gradient is , which is acceleration.
- The area under the graph is , which gives displacement (signed area, so it can be negative if velocity is negative).
Understanding the Question
You are given four statements about:
- what gradients/areas on a – graph represent, and
- definitions of velocity and acceleration.
You must choose the one statement that is NOT correct.
Approach
Check each option against:
- the calculus/graph interpretation for a velocity–time graph (gradient and area), and
- the precise definitions: velocity relates to displacement, speed relates to distance.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
- A: On a – graph, gradient , which is acceleration . So A is correct.
- B: By definition, acceleration is the rate of change of velocity, i.e. . So B is correct.
- C: Displacement is found from velocity by integrating over time:
This integral is the area under a – graph (taking sign into account). So C is correct.
- D: Velocity is the rate of change of displacement, not distance. The rate of change of distance is speed. Therefore D is not correct.
So the incorrect statement is D.
Key Takeaways
- Gradient of a – graph gives acceleration.
- Area under a – graph gives displacement.
- Velocity is linked to displacement (vector); speed is linked to distance (scalar).
Common Mistakes
- Writing “velocity is rate of change of distance” (this is the definition of speed).
- Thinking the area under a – graph gives distance without considering negative velocity (it gives signed displacement).
Things to Be Careful About
- Use the correct terms: distance vs displacement and speed vs velocity.
- Remember the sign convention: negative velocity contributes negative area and hence negative displacement.
The diagram shows a laboratory experiment in which a feather falls from rest in a long evacuated vertical tube of length .
The feather takes time to fall from the top to the bottom of the tube.
How far does the feather fall from the top of the tube in time ?
Options
A
B
C
D
Working
In vacuum the feather falls with constant acceleration from rest, so
For the full fall, .
At :
Answer
B
B
Background Concept
In an evacuated tube, air resistance is negligible, so the only significant force on the feather is its weight. This produces (approximately) constant downward acceleration equal to .
For motion with constant acceleration from rest (), the displacement after time is
So for free fall in vacuum (), displacement is proportional to .
Understanding the Question
The feather starts from rest at the top and takes total time to travel the whole tube length .
You are asked: in half that time, , what fraction of the total distance has it fallen?
Key clue: it is not moving at constant speed; it is accelerating, so half the time is not half the distance.
Approach
Use the constant-acceleration displacement formula .
- Write an expression for in terms of .
- Write an expression for in terms of .
- Divide to get (this cancels ).
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Full fall:
Half-time fall ():
Compute the square:
So
Hence the distance fallen in time is , which corresponds to option B.
Key Takeaways
- In free fall from rest with constant acceleration, .
- A fraction of the total time corresponds to a fraction of the total distance (when starting from rest and acceleration is constant).
Common Mistakes
- Choosing by assuming constant speed (it is accelerating).
- Using with taken as the final speed (speed is changing throughout).
- Forgetting to square the time fraction: .
Things to Be Careful About
- The feather is in an evacuated tube, so you must model it like any object in free fall (constant ).
- The proportional method works because both distances are described by the same equation with the same ; cancels when comparing fractions.
A car travels along a straight horizontal road. The graph shows the variation of the velocity of the car with time for of its journey.
The brakes of the car are applied from to .
How far does the car travel while the brakes are applied?
Options
A
B
C
D
Working
Distance while braking area under – graph from to .
From the graph: at and at .
Area (trapezium):
Answer
B
B
Background Concept
On a velocity–time graph, the displacement over a time interval equals the area under the graph for that interval.
If the velocity changes uniformly (a straight line on the graph), the area under the line between two times forms a trapezium. The trapezium area is
Here, the parallel sides are the two velocities, and the separation is the time interval.
Understanding the Question
The brakes are applied from to . The question asks for the distance travelled during braking, so we need the area under the – graph only between these two times (not from ).
From the graph during braking:
- at ,
- at ,
Approach
- Read the velocities at the start and end of braking from the graph.
- Find the time interval: .
- Since the graph segment is a straight line, use trapezium area (equivalently, average velocity (\times) time).
- Match the computed distance to the options.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Time interval while braking:
Trapezium area under the graph:
Substitute and :
So the correct option is B.
Key Takeaways
- Displacement from a – graph is found by area under the curve.
- A straight-line change in velocity over time gives a trapezium area:
Common Mistakes
- Using the wrong time interval (e.g. finding area from to instead of to ).
- Reading the velocities inaccurately (mixing up gridlines or using the wrong point).
- Calculating only a triangle area (which would correspond to velocity dropping to zero) rather than a trapezium.
Things to Be Careful About
- Ensure the distance is only for the braking period: to .
- Use correct units: velocity in , time in , so area gives .
- For a straight segment, trapezium area is valid; if the graph were curved, you would need a different method (e.g. counting squares/estimation).
Two satellites in deep space collide inelastically.
What happens to the total kinetic energy and total momentum?
Options
| total kinetic energy | total momentum | |
|---|---|---|
| A | conserved | conserved |
| B | conserved | reduced |
| C | reduced | conserved |
| D | reduced | reduced |
Working
In deep space the resultant external force on the two-satellite system is negligible, so total momentum is conserved.
For an inelastic collision, some kinetic energy is converted to other forms, so total kinetic energy is reduced.
Answer
C
C
Background Concept
In a collision, two key ideas are used:
- Linear momentum: (a vector). For a system of objects, the total momentum is the vector sum of each momentum.
- Conservation of momentum: if the resultant external force on the system is zero (or negligible), then the total momentum of the system remains constant.
Kinetic energy is
- In an elastic collision, total kinetic energy is conserved.
- In an inelastic collision, total kinetic energy is not conserved; some is transformed into internal energy (deformation, heating) and/or sound. So total kinetic energy decreases.
Understanding the Question
Two satellites collide inelastically in deep space. “Deep space” indicates there are negligible external forces (e.g. no significant gravitational forces or drag acting during the collision time), so the pair of satellites can be treated as an isolated system.
The question asks what happens to:
- total kinetic energy
- total momentum
Approach
- Decide whether the system is isolated: deep space implies external forces are negligible.
- Use that to decide whether momentum is conserved.
- Use the fact it is explicitly stated to be inelastic to decide what happens to kinetic energy.
- Match this pair of statements to the options.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
-
Momentum: For the two satellites taken together as one system, during the collision the forces they exert on each other are internal forces. With negligible external resultant force, conservation of momentum applies, so total momentum is conserved.
-
Kinetic energy: The collision is stated to be inelastic, meaning kinetic energy is converted into other forms (e.g. deformation of the satellites, heating). Therefore the total kinetic energy after the collision is less than before: it is reduced.
So the correct combination is: total kinetic energy reduced, total momentum conserved, which is option C.
Key Takeaways
- Momentum is conserved in collisions when the system has negligible external resultant force.
- Inelastic collisions do not conserve kinetic energy; total kinetic energy decreases.
- “Deep space” is a clue that external forces can be neglected.
Common Mistakes
- Thinking kinetic energy is always conserved in collisions (it is only conserved in elastic collisions).
- Thinking momentum is reduced because objects “lose speed”; momentum is still conserved if there is no external resultant force.
- Forgetting momentum is a vector (direction matters), though this question only asks about conservation qualitatively.
Things to Be Careful About
- Momentum conservation depends on external forces, not on whether the collision is elastic or inelastic.
- Kinetic energy conservation depends on whether the collision is elastic; “inelastic” directly implies kinetic energy is not conserved.
What is a reasonable estimate of the momentum of a family car travelling at kilometres per hour?
Options
A
B
C
D
Working
Take mass of a family car .
Convert speed:
Momentum:
Answer
A
A
Background Concept
Momentum is defined as
where is momentum (in ), is mass (in ) and is speed/velocity (in ). For an estimate question, you choose reasonable typical values and aim for the correct order of magnitude (power of ten) rather than an exact number.
Understanding the Question
We need an order-of-magnitude estimate of the momentum of a typical family car moving at . The answer options differ by factors of 10, so the key is:
- convert to ,
- use a sensible car mass (about ),
- compute and match to the nearest option.
Approach
- Estimate a typical family car mass: about to (i.e. about ).
- Convert into .
- Multiply and to get momentum and round to the nearest power of ten.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
-
Mass estimate: a family car is typically around .
-
Speed conversion:
- Momentum:
This is closest in order of magnitude to .
So the correct option is A.
Key Takeaways
- Use with SI units.
- A typical car mass is about .
- is about .
- Estimation MCQs usually test order of magnitude (powers of ten).
Common Mistakes
- Forgetting to convert to (leads to a value too large by a factor of ).
- Using an unrealistic car mass (e.g. or ).
- Choosing an option based on the unconverted speed number (e.g. multiplying without unit conversion).
Things to Be Careful About
- The conversion factor: .
- The options are spaced by decades (powers of ten), so rounding appropriately is expected.
- Momentum has units (do not write or unless you are consistent and know they are equivalent).
A ball collides with a wall. Before the collision, the ball moves with velocity to the right.
After the collision, it moves with velocity to the left.
What is the change in velocity of the ball during the collision?
Options
A to the left
B to the right
C to the left
D to the right
Working
Take right as positive.
u = -3\ \text{m s}^{-1},\quad u = +8\ \text{m s}^{-1}$$ $$\Delta v = v-u = (-3)-(+8) = -11\ \text{m s}^{-1}$$ So the change is $11\ \text{m s}^{-1}$ to the left. ## Answer CC
Background Concept
Velocity is a vector, so direction matters. The change in velocity is defined by
where is the initial velocity and is the final velocity. Because velocity is a vector, subtraction must be done with a consistent sign convention (e.g. right is positive, left is negative). The sign of then tells you the direction of the change.
Understanding the Question
The ball initially moves to the right at and after bouncing off the wall it moves to the left at . You are asked for the change in velocity during the collision (not the speed and not the final velocity).
Approach
- Choose a positive direction (take right as +).
- Write and with signs.
- Use .
- Convert the sign of into “to the left/right” and select the matching option.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Take right as positive.
- Initial velocity to the right:
v = -3\ \text{m s}^{-1}$$
Now calculate the change:
The negative sign means the change in velocity is towards the left, with magnitude .
So the correct option is C.
Key Takeaways
- Use for change in velocity.
- Treat velocity as a vector: assign signs for direction.
- A negative (with right positive) means the change is to the left.
Common Mistakes
- Adding speeds: but then stating “to the right” without sign reasoning.
- Using (wrong order), which flips the direction.
- Treating “left” as a separate label rather than using a sign convention.
Things to Be Careful About
- Always define which direction is positive before substituting values.
- The answer is the change in velocity, not the final velocity.
- A result like must be converted into a magnitude and direction: to the left.
A lead pellet is shot vertically upwards into a clay block that is stationary at the moment of impact, but is able to rise freely after impact.
The mass of the pellet is and the mass of the clay block is .
The pellet hits the block with an initial vertical velocity of . It embeds itself in the block and does not emerge.
How high above its initial position will the block rise?
Options
A
B
C
D
Working
Pellet mass , block mass .
Conservation of momentum at impact:
After impact, kinetic energy converts to gravitational potential energy:
Answer
A
A
Background Concept
This situation has two distinct stages:
- Collision (very short time): external forces like weight act, but the collision time is so small that the impulse due to external forces is negligible compared with the impulse between pellet and block. So total momentum is conserved during the impact.
For a perfectly inelastic collision (objects stick together),
- Rise after collision: after the pellet is embedded, the combined mass moves upward and slows under gravity until its speed becomes zero at the top. Neglecting air resistance, mechanical energy is conserved during this rise:
so
Note the mass cancels, so the height depends only on the speed just after the collision.
Understanding the Question
A pellet travels upward at and embeds in a stationary clay block. You are asked for the maximum height the block (with pellet) rises above its initial position.
Key clues:
- “embeds itself” (\Rightarrow) perfectly inelastic collision (momentum conserved, kinetic energy not conserved in the collision).
- “rise freely after impact” (\Rightarrow) after collision, treat it like a projectile moving under gravity.
Approach
- Use conservation of momentum to find the common upward speed (v) immediately after impact.
- Convert that kinetic energy into gravitational potential energy to find (h):
Step-by-Step Reasoning
- Convert grams to kilograms:
Total mass after sticking:
- Momentum before impact:
- Pellet momentum: (mu = 0.0050\times 200)
- Block momentum: (0) (stationary)
So total initial momentum is
- Momentum after impact:
They move together at speed (v):
Conservation of momentum gives
- Find rise height using energy (or SUVAT). At the top, final speed is (0). Using energy:
Cancel ((M+m)):
Substitute (v=10\text{ m s}^{-1}) and (g=9.81\text{ m s}^{-2}):
This corresponds to option A.
Key Takeaways
- For an inelastic collision, conserve momentum, not kinetic energy.
- After the collision, use energy conservation (or kinematics) for the upward motion under gravity.
- The height depends on the post-collision speed, with (h = v^2/(2g)).
Common Mistakes
- Conserving kinetic energy during the collision (not valid when the pellet embeds).
- Forgetting to convert grams to kilograms.
- Using the pellet mass alone when calculating the rise, instead of the combined mass (though it cancels if you do the energy step correctly).
- Using (h = v^2/g) instead of (h = v^2/(2g)).
Things to Be Careful About
- Momentum conservation applies during the impact because the collision time is very small; it does not mean momentum is conserved during the rise.
- Use a consistent value for (g) (typically (9.81\text{ m s}^{-2}) or (9.8\text{ m s}^{-2})); rounding should still clearly match option A.
- The question asks for height above its initial position (the block’s starting level), which is exactly what the energy method gives here.
Two forces act on an object.
Which diagram represents a couple?
Options
Working
A couple is formed by two forces that are equal in magnitude, opposite in direction, and have parallel but separated lines of action (resultant force zero, non-zero moment).
Only diagram B shows equal and opposite forces separated by a distance.
Answer
B
B
Background Concept
A couple consists of two forces that:
- are equal in magnitude,
- act in opposite directions,
- are parallel,
- act along different (separated) lines of action.
Because the forces are equal and opposite, the resultant force is zero (so the object does not accelerate linearly). However, because the lines of action are separated, the forces produce a turning effect (a moment/torque).
The moment of a couple is
where is the magnitude of one of the forces and is the perpendicular distance between their lines of action.
Understanding the Question
You are shown four diagrams (A–D) of a single object with two vertical forces acting at different positions.
You must choose which diagram represents a couple.
So we must look for: same size forces, opposite directions, separated.
Approach
For each option:
- Check if the forces are equal in magnitude.
- Check if they are opposite in direction.
- Check if their lines of action are separated (not collinear), so a turning effect exists.
Only a diagram that satisfies all three is a couple.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
- A: both forces are but both act downwards. Resultant force is not zero, so not a couple.
- B: one force is down and the other is up, and they act on opposite sides (separated). Resultant force is zero, but there is a turning effect: this is a couple.
- C: forces are both downwards and also unequal ( and ). Not a couple.
- D: forces are opposite in direction but unequal ( and ). Resultant force is not zero, so not a couple.
Therefore the correct option is B.
Key Takeaways
- A couple requires equal and opposite forces with separated lines of action.
- Couples cause rotation without translation (zero net force, non-zero moment).
Common Mistakes
- Choosing two forces that are separated but in the same direction (gives a net force, not a couple).
- Choosing opposite forces that are not equal (net force not zero).
- Forgetting that the forces must be parallel and not acting along the same line.
Things to Be Careful About
- “Opposite sides” alone is not enough: you must check equal magnitude and opposite direction.
- A couple always has zero resultant force; if the forces are not equal and opposite, it cannot be a couple.
The diagram shows a uniform rod, , that is freely hinged to a vertical wall at end . The rod is at an angle of to the wall.
A force acts at an angle of to the rod at end . The rod has a weight of and is in equilibrium.
What is the magnitude of force ?
Options
A
B
C
D
Working
Take moments about hinge at .
Moment of about :
Moment of weight about (weight acts at midpoint):
Equilibrium:
Cancel :
Answer
C
C
Background Concept
For a rigid body in equilibrium:
- The resultant force is zero.
- The resultant moment (torque) about any point is zero.
The moment of a force about a point is
where is the distance from the pivot to the point of application of the force, and is the angle between the force direction and the line from the pivot to the point of application. Only the component of the force perpendicular to the rod contributes to the turning effect.
Understanding the Question
A uniform rod is hinged at to a vertical wall. The rod makes to the wall (so the rod is at to the vertical). The rod’s weight is acting vertically downward at its midpoint.
At the free end , a force acts at to the rod. The rod is in equilibrium, so clockwise moments about the hinge must balance anticlockwise moments.
Approach
Choose the hinge point as the moment-taking point because the (unknown) hinge reaction forces act through and therefore produce zero moment. Then:
- Write the moment of about using and angle .
- Write the moment of the weight about using and the angle between the rod and the weight direction (vertical), which is .
- Equate the two moments and solve for .
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Let the rod length be .
1) Moment due to about
The force is applied at , a distance from . The angle between the rod (the line ) and is , so the perpendicular component is .
2) Moment due to the weight about
Because the rod is uniform, the weight acts at the midpoint, distance from .
The weight acts vertically downward, and the rod makes with the vertical, so the angle between (along the rod) and the weight is .
3) Equilibrium condition (principle of moments)
Clockwise moment = anticlockwise moment (magnitudes equal):
Cancel and use :
Both sides contain a factor , so
So the correct option is C.
Key Takeaways
- Taking moments about the hinge removes unknown hinge forces from the calculation.
- Use : the angle is between the force and the line from pivot to point of action.
- For a uniform rod, weight acts at the midpoint.
Common Mistakes
- Using instead of for the torque factor.
- Using the wrong lever arm for the weight (using instead of ).
- Using the wrong angle for the weight: it is the angle between the rod and the vertical (the weight’s direction), i.e. .
- Trying to balance forces rather than moments (force balance alone is not sufficient to find here).
Things to Be Careful About
- Always identify the pivot and measure from that pivot.
- The hinge reaction may have both horizontal and vertical components, but both pass through the pivot so their moments about are zero.
- Check which angle is given: “rod at to the wall” means to the vertical (since the wall is vertical).
Water has a density of .
Glycerine has a density of .
A student measures out a volume of of glycerine into a container.
The student adds water to the container to make a mixture of water and glycerine. Assume that the total volume of water and glycerine does not change when the two liquids are mixed.
Which volume of water needs to be added to make a mixture of density ?
Options
A
B
C
D
Working
Mass of glycerine:
Let volume of water added be .
Mass of water:
Mixture density:
So
Answer
D
D
Background Concept
Density is defined as mass per unit volume:
For a substance of uniform density, mass can be found from
When two liquids are mixed (and we are told to assume the volumes add with no change), the total mass is the sum of the masses of each liquid and the total volume is the sum of their volumes:
So the mixture density is
Understanding the Question
You start with of glycerine (density ). You then add some volume of water (density ) so that the final mixture has density . The unknown is the volume of water that must be added.
The key instruction is: total volume does not change on mixing. That means the final volume is simply .
Approach
- Convert the given volumes and densities into masses using .
- Add masses to get total mass, and add volumes to get total volume.
- Set the required mixture density equal to .
- Solve the resulting equation for and choose the matching option.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Mass of glycerine:
Let the volume of water added be . The mass of that water is
Total mass and total volume of mixture:
Required density is :
Solve:
This corresponds to option D.
A quick sense-check: the target density is much closer to water (1.0) than to glycerine (1.3), so you need to add a relatively large volume of water compared with of glycerine. is consistent with that.
Key Takeaways
- Use to turn densities and volumes into masses.
- For mixtures with no volume change: add masses and add volumes separately.
- Set and solve for the unknown.
Common Mistakes
- Adding densities directly (e.g. averaging and ) instead of using mass and volume.
- Forgetting the instruction that volumes add (some mixtures contract/expand, but here it is explicitly excluded).
- Rearrangement error when solving (especially mishandling ).
Things to Be Careful About
- Keep units consistent: here with naturally gives grams.
- When clearing a fraction, multiply both sides by the full denominator .
- The mixture density must lie between and ; if your algebra gives a negative volume or a density outside this range, something has gone wrong.
The force resisting the motion of a car is proportional to the square of the car’s speed. The magnitude of the force at a speed of is .
What useful output power is required from the car’s engine to maintain a steady speed of ?
Options
A
B
C
D
Working
Resistive force .
At ,
Power needed:
Answer
C
C
Background Concept
A resistive (drag) force that is proportional to the square of speed has the form
where is a constant for that car under those conditions.
To maintain a steady speed, the engine must provide a driving force equal in magnitude to the resistive force (resultant force ). The useful output power needed at that speed is
where is the force the engine must supply at that speed.
Understanding the Question
You are told:
- at , the resistive force is ,
- resistive force varies as ,
- find the useful output power needed to keep the car moving steadily at .
So you must (1) scale the force from to , then (2) use .
Approach
- Use the proportionality to find the new force at .
- Since speed is steady, the engine’s useful force output equals this resistive force.
- Compute power using and match to the given options.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Because
then the ratio of forces at two speeds is
With at and :
At steady speed, the engine must supply .
Now use
with :
This corresponds to option C.
Key Takeaways
- If , doubling makes four times larger.
- Power to maintain constant speed against a resistive force is .
- With quadratic drag, power increases very rapidly with speed (here by a factor of when speed doubles).
Common Mistakes
- Scaling the force linearly with instead of with (getting ).
- Forgetting that power depends on both force and speed, and using or .
- Converting to kW incorrectly (missing the factor of ).
Things to Be Careful About
- Use the ratio method carefully: square the speed ratio.
- Keep units consistent: .
- “Useful output power” here means the mechanical power delivered to the wheels to balance resistive forces at steady speed (not the chemical power from fuel).
A box of weight is pulled by a force along a slope.
The length of the slope is , and the box rises a height .
The frictional force between the box and the slope is .
The diagram shows the directions of the forces.
The purpose of the slope is to raise the box vertically.
Which expression gives the efficiency of the slope?
Options
A
B
C
D
Working
Useful output energy gain .
Work input by pulling force .
Efficiency
Answer
D
D
Background Concept
Efficiency compares how much of the energy you put into a process becomes the intended (useful) output.
For raising an object vertically, the useful output is the increase in gravitational potential energy:
Here the weight of the box is , so .
The input energy is the work done by the pulling force. For a constant force acting along the direction of motion, the work done is:
Understanding the Question
The box is pulled up the slope by force through a distance along the slope, and as a result it rises vertically by height .
- Useful effect (what we want): raise the box vertically by .
- Useful output energy: increase in GPE .
- Energy input: work done by the pulling force over the distance , i.e. .
The friction force is mentioned to indicate that not all the input work becomes GPE; some is dissipated as thermal energy. But efficiency is still defined as useful output divided by total input.
Approach
- Write the useful output energy for raising the box: .
- Write the input work done by the applied force along the slope: .
- Form the efficiency ratio and match it to an option.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
- Increase in gravitational potential energy:
- Work done by the pulling force acting along the slope over distance :
- Efficiency:
This matches option D.
Key Takeaways
- Efficiency is always (\text{useful output} / \text{total input}).
- For lifting: useful output is (Wh).
- Input work from a pulling force along the path is (Pd).
Common Mistakes
- Using friction work as the input: is energy wasted, not the total energy supplied.
- Inverting the efficiency ratio (giving a value greater than 1).
- Using instead of : the weight acts vertically, but the displacement for the input work is along the slope.
Things to Be Careful About
- Work done uses the force component in the direction of displacement; here is already along the slope and the displacement is .
- Efficiency is dimensionless (no units), so the expression should be a ratio of energies (both in joules).
The kinetic energy of a particle is increased by a factor of .
By what factor does its speed increase?
Options
A
B
C
D
Working
Kinetic energy
If increases by a factor of ,
Answer
A
A
Background Concept
For a particle of constant mass , the kinetic energy is
This shows that, with unchanged, kinetic energy is proportional to the square of speed:
So changes in kinetic energy relate to changes in speed by a square relationship.
Understanding the Question
You are told the kinetic energy becomes times bigger. The mass of the particle is assumed constant. You are asked for the factor by which the speed changes (i.e. ).
Approach
Use to write a ratio of final to initial kinetic energy. Since , take the square root of the energy factor to get the speed factor.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Start from
Form the ratio:
Given :
Take square roots:
So the speed increases by a factor of (option A).
Key Takeaways
- With constant mass, .
- If kinetic energy changes by a factor , speed changes by a factor .
Common Mistakes
- Saying the speed increases by a factor of (forgetting the square on ).
- Multiplying by instead of taking the square root.
Things to Be Careful About
- The relationship only works directly if the mass is constant.
- Always take the positive square root for speed (speed is a magnitude).
A mass of is raised vertically upwards through a distance of .
What is the change in gravitational potential energy of the mass?
Options
A
B
C
D
Working
Mass
Answer
B
B
Background Concept
When a mass is raised vertically, work is done against gravity and the gravitational potential energy (GPE) increases. The change in GPE near the Earth's surface is given by
where:
- is the mass in ,
- is the gravitational field strength (about ),
- is the vertical height change in .
This formula applies when is approximately constant, which is true for heights of a few metres.
Understanding the Question
You are told a mass of is raised straight up by . The question asks for the increase in gravitational potential energy. Because the movement is vertical upward, the height change is simply .
Approach
- Convert the given mass from grams to kilograms.
- Use .
- Calculate and compare with the options to select the closest value.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
- Convert mass:
- Use the GPE equation:
- Substitute values ():
Calculate:
So the correct option is B.
Key Takeaways
- For vertical lifting near Earth, use .
- Always convert grams to kilograms before substituting into equations with SI units.
- A quick check of order of magnitude helps: , so the answer must be around .
Common Mistakes
- Using instead of (forgetting grams to kilograms), giving answers about times too large.
- Using (wrong unit); should be in (equivalently ).
- Confusing distance moved with height when motion is not vertical (here it is vertical, so it is fine).
Things to Be Careful About
- Unit consistency: in , in , gives energy in joules.
- Rounding: the calculated value rounds to , matching the option.
A sample of metal is subjected to a force which increases to a maximum value and then decreases back to zero. A force–extension graph for the sample is shown.
When the sample contracts, it follows the same force–extension curve as when it was being stretched.
What is the behaviour of the metal between and ?
Options
A both elastic and plastic
B not elastic and not plastic
C elastic but not plastic
D plastic but not elastic
Working
Between and the graph is non-linear, so Hooke’s law is not obeyed (not proportional).
When the force is reduced to zero, the sample follows the same curve back, so it returns to its original length (no permanent extension) (\Rightarrow) deformation is elastic and not plastic.
Answer
C
C
Background Concept
A force–extension graph shows how a material stretches under an applied force.
- Elastic deformation: the material returns to its original length when the force is removed (no permanent extension). On a force–extension graph, unloading returns to zero extension.
- Plastic deformation: the material does not fully return to its original length; there is permanent extension when the force is removed. On a force–extension graph, unloading does not follow the same path and ends at a non-zero extension.
- Hooke’s law applies only in the linear region:
where is the spring constant and is the extension. If the graph is not a straight line through the origin, the behaviour is non-Hookean, but it can still be elastic.
Understanding the Question
The graph starts as a straight line from the origin up to point , then becomes curved up to point .
You are told an important extra fact: when the sample contracts, it follows the same force–extension curve as when it was being stretched. The question asks what type of behaviour the metal shows between and .
So we must decide:
- Is the deformation between and elastic or plastic?
- (And note that linear vs non-linear tells us whether it obeys Hooke’s law, not whether it is elastic.)
Approach
- Use the shape of the graph between and to decide whether Hooke’s law holds there (linear or not).
- Use the unloading information (same curve on contraction) to decide whether the deformation is elastic or plastic.
- Match this to the options.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
- Up to the graph is a straight line through the origin, so and Hooke’s law holds there.
- From to the graph is curved (changing gradient), so is not proportional to .
- This means the material is not Hookean in this region.
- The key statement: on contraction, it follows the same force–extension curve as during stretching.
- This implies there is no separate unloading curve and no “loop”.
- Therefore when the force returns to zero, the extension must also return to zero: no permanent extension.
- Hence the deformation is elastic, not plastic.
- So between and the behaviour is elastic but not plastic.
Therefore the correct option is C.
Key Takeaways
- Plastic deformation is indicated by permanent extension (extension not returning to zero at ) and typically a different unloading path.
- A material can be elastic but non-linear (non-Hookean): elastic does not require a straight-line graph.
- The loading/unloading information is often the decisive clue.
Common Mistakes
- Thinking “non-linear” automatically means “plastic”. Non-linear only means Hooke’s law is not obeyed.
- Choosing “both elastic and plastic” because looks like a limit of proportionality. The limit of proportionality is not necessarily the elastic limit.
- Ignoring the statement about following the same curve on contraction (this statement rules out plastic deformation).
Things to Be Careful About
- Elastic limit vs limit of proportionality: marks the end of the straight-line region (limit of proportionality), but elastic behaviour can extend beyond it.
- Plastic deformation would require that on unloading, the material does not return to the origin (or at least does not retrace the same curve), giving a non-zero extension at zero force.
Two wires, and , made of the same material, are stretched with an increasing force.
A graph is plotted of the variation with force of the extension of each wire.
The wires have the same original length but different diameters.
What is the ratio ?
Options
A
B
C
D
Working
For a wire,
Same material and same original length (\Rightarrow) (L) and (Y) are same, so gradient (\frac{x}{F} \propto \frac{1}{A} \propto \frac{1}{d^2}).
From the graph at (F=2\ \text{N}):
So
Hence
Answer
C
C
Background Concept
When a wire is stretched elastically (within its limit of proportionality), it obeys Hooke’s law-like behaviour: extension is proportional to applied force.
For a wire of original length and cross-sectional area , the extension produced by a tensile force is
where is the Young modulus of the material.
Key consequence: for wires made of the same material ( same) and of the same original length ( same), the extension per unit force is
Also, for a circular wire,
so
Understanding the Question
You are given a graph of extension (vertical axis) against force (horizontal axis) for two wires and .
- Both wires have the same length and are made of the same material.
- They have different diameters.
- The lines pass through the origin and are straight, so both are in the proportional (elastic) region.
The question asks for the ratio , using only the information from the graph.
Approach
- Use the graph to compare the gradients (slopes) of the two straight lines. The gradient is .
- Use for same and .
- Convert the area ratio into a diameter ratio using .
Step-by-Step Reasoning
From the graph, pick a convenient force value where both extensions are easy to read (e.g. ):
- For wire , at the extension is about .
- For wire , at the extension is about .
So the gradients are
Their ratio is
Using , with and the same for both wires:
Hence
Since ,
so
This corresponds to option C.
Key Takeaways
- On an extension–force graph, the gradient is .
- For wires of the same material and length, .
- For circular wires, , so diameter ratios involve square roots of gradient ratios.
Common Mistakes
- Using extension values directly to compare diameters without considering the inverse-square relationship (forgetting ).
- Inverting the ratio: mixing up whether steeper line means larger or smaller diameter.
- Forgetting that gradient is (some students incorrectly use ).
Things to Be Careful About
- Read both lines at the same force (or use gradients consistently), because the proportionality is based on .
- The square root step is essential: area ratio implies diameter ratio , not .
An extension–force graph for a spring is shown.
What is the spring constant of the spring?
Options
A
B
C
D
Working
From the graph: gives extension .
Hooke's law:
Answer
D
D
Background Concept
For a spring that obeys Hooke’s law, the extension is proportional to the applied force :
where is the spring constant (stiffness) in . A larger means a stiffer spring (more force needed per metre of extension).
If the graph is extension against force (i.e. on the vertical axis and on the horizontal axis), then its gradient is:
So you can either (1) find and invert it, or (2) use one point and compute directly.
Understanding the Question
You are given an extension–force graph (straight line through the origin). You need the spring constant .
A clear point on the line is and .
Approach
- Read a convenient point on the straight line (not too close to the origin).
- Convert extension from to .
- Use Hooke’s law (or invert the gradient ).
- Match the numerical value to the options.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
From the graph, at the extension is .
Convert:
Now apply Hooke’s law:
This corresponds to option D.
(Equivalently, gradient , so .)
Key Takeaways
- Hooke’s law: .
- If plotting vs , the gradient is .
- Always convert to to obtain in .
Common Mistakes
- Using as (gives smaller by factor ).
- Taking the gradient as when the graph is against (swapping axes).
- Forgetting that the spring constant has units .
Things to Be Careful About
- Check which variable is on which axis: here vertical is extension and horizontal is force.
- Use a point far from the origin to reduce reading error (the point is ideal).
- Ensure consistent SI units before calculating .
A man stands stationary in front of a swing. A child sits and swings.
The child blows a whistle that emits a sound at a constant frequency.
The man observes the frequency of the sound when the swing is at positions , and .
When will the man hear the highest frequency?
Options
A when the swing is at
B when the swing is at and moving away from the man
C when the swing is at and moving towards the man
D when the swing is at
Working
Highest observed frequency occurs when the source moves towards the observer with the greatest speed (Doppler effect).
The child’s speed is greatest at the lowest point .
So the highest frequency is heard when the swing is at and moving towards the man.
Answer
C
C
Background Concept
For the Doppler effect with a moving source and a stationary observer, the observed frequency increases when the source moves towards the observer and decreases when it moves away.
A useful qualitative rule for MCQs:
- Towards + faster (\Rightarrow) higher observed frequency.
- Away + faster (\Rightarrow) lower observed frequency.
For a swinging motion (like a pendulum), the speed is:
- maximum at the lowest point (gravitational potential energy has been converted to kinetic energy),
- zero at the extreme positions (the swing turns around).
Understanding the Question
A man is stationary. The child on the swing is the sound source (whistle emits constant frequency). The man listens at three swing positions:
- (X): near the man on the left side of the path,
- (Y): lowest middle position,
- (Z): right side extreme.
We must decide at which listed situation the man hears the highest frequency.
Approach
- Use Doppler idea: highest frequency when source moves towards observer.
- Compare the source speed at positions (X, Y, Z): for a swing, speed is greatest at (Y) and least (zero) at the extremes.
- Pick the option that is both towards the man and at maximum speed.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
- At (Z) (an extreme position), the child momentarily stops before swinging back: speed (=0). With no motion relative to the man, there is no Doppler shift, so frequency is not the highest.
- At (X) (near the other side), the child is not guaranteed to be moving fastest; in swing motion the speed near the ends is smaller than at the bottom.
- At (Y) (lowest point), the child’s speed is maximum.
- If at (Y) the child moves towards the man, the wavefronts are effectively “bunched up” in front of the moving source, so the observed wavelength is smaller and the observed frequency is largest.
- If at (Y) the child moves away, the opposite happens and the observed frequency is lower.
Therefore, the highest frequency occurs at (Y) while moving towards the man (\Rightarrow) option C.
Key Takeaways
- Doppler shift depends on relative motion along the line between source and observer.
- For a swinging source, the maximum speed is at the lowest point.
- Highest observed frequency: maximum speed towards the observer.
Common Mistakes
- Choosing an extreme position (like (Z)) thinking “closest means loudest/highest frequency” — distance affects intensity, not Doppler frequency.
- Forgetting direction: at (Y) the child can be moving either towards or away depending on which way the swing is moving.
- Assuming the speed is greatest at the ends; it is actually zero at the ends.
Things to Be Careful About
- Doppler effect is about the component of velocity towards/away from the observer, not the total speed in some other direction.
- In oscillations, always recall: speed max at equilibrium (lowest point), zero at turning points.
- The whistle emits a constant frequency: any change heard by the man is due to Doppler shift only.
A loudspeaker is playing music in a room. The door to the room is open and has a width of .
Sound waves of many different frequencies pass through the doorway and diffract. The speed of sound in air is .
Which frequency of sound wave diffracts the most as it passes through the doorway?
Options
A
B
C
D
Working
For noticeable diffraction through an aperture, the wavelength must be comparable to the width of the gap, so
Using the wave equation :
This matches option D. Checking the wavelengths of the options with : A gives m, B gives 425 m, C gives 1.26 m and D gives 0.79 m — only D has a wavelength comparable to the 0.80 m door width.
Answer
D
D
Background Concept
Diffraction is the spreading of a wave as it passes through a gap or around an obstacle. The amount of spreading depends on the wavelength compared with the size of the aperture (gap) :
- If , the wave passes through almost straight, with very little spreading — diffraction is hard to notice.
- If , the wave spreads out strongly after the gap; this is the case where diffraction is most marked.
- If , the gap begins to act like a point source and the wave spreads out in all directions, though through a small gap the transmitted energy is weak.
The wave equation
links the speed , frequency and wavelength of any wave. For sound in air, is effectively constant (taken here as ), so frequency and wavelength are inversely related: a low-frequency wave has a long wavelength and a high-frequency wave has a short wavelength.
Understanding the Question
A loudspeaker produces a mixture of sound frequencies, all travelling through the same open doorway of width m. The question asks which of the given frequencies diffracts the most through that doorway.
The doorway width is the essential piece of information: to answer, we must compare each frequency's wavelength with m. Options A and B are extremely low frequencies, giving enormous wavelengths; options C and D give wavelengths in the metre range. We need the frequency whose wavelength is closest to the door width.
Approach
- Use to convert frequency to wavelength, or to find the frequency that gives the required wavelength.
- Apply the diffraction condition: noticeable diffraction occurs when and the aperture width are of the same order of magnitude.
- Since the door width is m, set m and solve .
- Match the result to one of the options; optionally confirm by computing the wavelength of every option.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Step 1 — State the condition for significant diffraction.
A wave diffracts most noticeably through a gap when its wavelength is comparable to the gap width:
Step 2 — Find the frequency that gives this wavelength.
Rearranging :
Option D is Hz, so D is the answer.
Step 3 — Confirm by checking the other options.
Using for each option:
- A: m — vastly larger than the door; also far below the audible range, so it cannot be produced by a loudspeaker playing music.
- B: m — again vastly larger than the door.
- C: m — larger than 0.80 m, so the match is poor.
- D: m — essentially equal to the door width, so this wave shows the most noticeable diffraction.
Step 4 — Conclusion.
The correct option is D.
Key Takeaways
- Diffraction is decided by comparing the wavelength with the aperture size — never judge it from frequency alone.
- The wave equation is the bridge between frequency and wavelength; for sound, is fixed, so small means large .
- In questions of this type, compute the wavelength of each option (or solve for the frequency that matches the given length) and compare with the aperture.
Common Mistakes
- Choosing the lowest frequency because “longer wavelengths diffract more”. Very long wavelengths do spread out in all directions, but the A-level condition for the wave that diffracts most through a specific gap is that should be comparable to the gap width — the wavelength must be matched to the aperture, not merely as long as possible. Options A and B are also absurdly low frequencies for a loudspeaker; they are distractors.
- Using the wave equation incorrectly, e.g. writing . Check the units: divided by m gives , which is frequency.
- Ignoring the given data. The speed of sound () and the door width (0.80 m) are both needed; answering qualitatively without them is guesswork.
- Settling for C because 1.26 m is “about a metre”. The comparison must be quantitative: D's wavelength (0.79 m) is within about 1% of the door width, whereas C's is about 60% larger.
Things to Be Careful About
- Keep the units consistent: and m give the frequency directly in Hz.
- Watch powers of ten in the options: Hz and Hz correspond to wavelengths of m and m — completely different in scale from the door.
- “Comparable to” means of the same order of magnitude, not exactly equal; a wavelength of about 0.8 m is the target.
- In the exam, a short calculation () followed by the option letter is enough working to score the mark.
A stationary sound wave is set up between a loudspeaker and a wall.
A microphone is connected to a cathode-ray oscilloscope (CRO) and is moved along a line directly between the loudspeaker and the wall. The amplitude of the trace on the CRO rises to a maximum at a position , falls to a minimum and then rises once again to a maximum at a position .
The distance between and is . The speed of sound in air is .
Which diagram could represent the CRO trace of the sound received at ?
Options
Working
The positions X and Y are adjacent antinodes (maxima of amplitude) in the stationary wave. The distance between adjacent antinodes is .
Using the wave equation :
The period of the wave is:
The CRO screen is 10 cm wide (standard 10 × 5 grid with 1 cm per square). With a time base of , the total time displayed is:
The number of cycles shown on the screen is:
Diagram B shows 2.5 cycles across the screen.
Answer
B
B
Background Concept
A stationary (or standing) wave is formed by the superposition of two progressive waves of the same frequency and amplitude travelling in opposite directions. The wave has fixed points of zero amplitude called nodes and points of maximum amplitude called antinodes. The distance between adjacent nodes is , and the distance between adjacent antinodes is also . The distance between a node and the nearest antinode is .
The wave equation relates the speed of a wave , its frequency , and its wavelength :
A cathode-ray oscilloscope (CRO) displays a waveform on a gridded screen. The time base setting (in or ) determines how much time is represented by each horizontal centimetre (or division) on the screen. The total time displayed across the screen is the screen width multiplied by the time base setting.
Understanding the Question
The question describes a stationary sound wave between a loudspeaker and a wall. A microphone is moved along the line between them, and the amplitude of the received signal is observed. The amplitude rises to a maximum at X, falls to a minimum, and rises to a maximum at Y. We are given the distance between X and Y (33 cm) and the speed of sound (330 m/s). We need to identify which CRO trace (A, B, C, or D) represents the sound wave received at position X (an antinode, where the amplitude is maximum).
Approach
- Identify X and Y as adjacent antinodes and use their separation to find the wavelength .
- Use the wave equation to find the frequency and then the period of the sound wave.
- Determine the total time displayed on the CRO screen using the time base setting and the standard screen width (10 cm).
- Calculate the number of cycles that fit into this time and match it to the correct diagram.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Step 1: Find the wavelength
The amplitude rises to a maximum at X, falls to a minimum (a node), and rises to a maximum at Y. This describes the distance between two adjacent antinodes. Therefore:
Step 2: Find the frequency and period
Using the wave equation with :
The period is the reciprocal of the frequency:
Step 3: Determine the time displayed on the CRO
The CRO screen has a standard 10 × 5 grid, where each square is 1 cm wide. The total screen width is 10 cm. With a time base of :
Step 4: Calculate the number of cycles
Divide the total time by the period to find the number of cycles:
Step 5: Match to the diagram
- Diagram A shows ~1.25 cycles.
- Diagram B shows 2.5 cycles (2 full cycles and a half).
- Diagram C shows 1.5 cycles.
- Diagram D shows ~5 cycles.
Diagram B correctly shows 2.5 cycles.
Key Takeaways
- In a stationary wave, the distance between adjacent antinodes (or nodes) is .
- The CRO time base converts horizontal distance on the screen into time. Always multiply the screen width by the time base to get the total time displayed.
- The number of cycles on the screen is the total time divided by the wave period.
Common Mistakes
- Misidentifying the distance between X and Y: Assuming X and Y are separated by a full wavelength instead of . The description "maximum → minimum → maximum" corresponds to half a wavelength.
- Ignoring the CRO screen width: Forgetting to multiply the time base by the screen width (10 cm) to find the total time displayed. If one assumes the screen is 5 cm wide (misreading the grid scale), they would get 1.25 cycles and incorrectly choose A.
- Confusing amplitude with frequency: The question asks for the trace at position X (an antinode), which has maximum amplitude. All options show similar amplitudes, so the key is to match the frequency (number of cycles), not the amplitude.
Things to Be Careful About
- Significant figures: The wavelength is exactly 66 cm, giving exactly 500 Hz and 2.0 ms. Keep enough precision to avoid rounding errors.
- CRO grid conventions: Standard CRO screens are 10 cm wide (10 horizontal divisions). Ensure you use the correct total width when calculating the total time displayed.
- Units: Convert cm to m for the wavelength when using the wave equation with speed in m/s. Convert seconds to milliseconds when comparing with the time base in ms/cm.
Polarisation is associated with certain waves.
Which waves cannot be polarised?
Options
A radio waves from a transmitter
B sound waves from a moving source
C ultraviolet rays from the Sun
D X-rays from an X-ray emitter
Polarisation is only possible for transverse waves (oscillations in a plane perpendicular to the direction of travel).
Sound in air is a longitudinal wave, so it cannot be polarised.
Answer
B
B
Background Concept
Polarisation is a property of transverse waves. In a transverse wave, the oscillations are perpendicular to the direction of wave travel, so there can be different possible directions (planes) of oscillation.
To polarise a wave means to restrict these oscillations to one plane (one direction of oscillation).
A longitudinal wave has oscillations parallel to the direction of travel (compressions and rarefactions). Since the oscillation direction is fixed along the line of travel, there is no “plane of oscillation” to restrict, so longitudinal waves cannot be polarised.
Understanding the Question
You are given four examples of waves and asked which cannot be polarised. So you need to identify which option is a longitudinal wave (or otherwise not capable of transverse oscillations).
Approach
- Decide whether each listed wave is electromagnetic or mechanical.
- Recall: electromagnetic waves are transverse and can be polarised.
- Recall: sound waves in air are longitudinal and cannot be polarised.
- Choose the option corresponding to sound.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
- A radio waves: electromagnetic radiation (\Rightarrow) transverse (\Rightarrow) can be polarised.
- B sound waves from a moving source: sound in air is longitudinal (even if the source is moving, the wave type is still longitudinal) (\Rightarrow) cannot be polarised.
- C ultraviolet rays: electromagnetic (\Rightarrow) transverse (\Rightarrow) can be polarised.
- D X-rays: electromagnetic (\Rightarrow) transverse (\Rightarrow) can be polarised.
Therefore the only wave that cannot be polarised is sound.
Key Takeaways
- Only transverse waves can be polarised.
- All electromagnetic waves (radio, UV, X-ray) are transverse and can be polarised.
- Sound in air is longitudinal and cannot be polarised.
Common Mistakes
- Thinking “moving source” changes the wave from longitudinal to transverse (it does not).
- Forgetting that all electromagnetic waves are transverse, regardless of frequency.
Things to Be Careful About
- Sound can be transverse in solids in some situations, but in air (the standard A-level context) sound is longitudinal.
- The question is asking which waves cannot be polarised, so you must pick the longitudinal one, not an electromagnetic one.
A guitar string is plucked.
Which statement describes the resulting waves?
Options
A Longitudinal waves on the string cause longitudinal waves in the air.
B Longitudinal waves on the string cause transverse waves in the air.
C Transverse waves on the string cause longitudinal waves in the air.
D Transverse waves on the string cause transverse waves in the air.
Working
A plucked string oscillates perpendicular to the string, so the wave on the string is transverse.
Sound in air is a pressure wave with oscillations parallel to the direction of travel, so it is longitudinal.
Answer
C
C
Background Concept
A wave can be classified by how the particles of the medium oscillate compared with the direction the wave travels.
- Transverse wave: oscillations are perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation.
- Longitudinal wave: oscillations are parallel to the direction of wave propagation (compressions and rarefactions in a fluid such as air).
A stretched string supports transverse waves well because the restoring force is due to the tension when the string is displaced sideways.
Air supports sound as a longitudinal pressure wave because air cannot sustain shear stresses; it transmits compressions/expansions.
Understanding the Question
The guitar string is plucked (sideways displacement), producing a wave travelling along the string. The vibrating string then drives the surrounding air, producing sound waves that travel away from the guitar.
We must choose which option correctly states:
- the wave type on the string, and
- the wave type in the air.
Approach
- Decide whether the string’s displacement is perpendicular or parallel to the string.
- Recall the nature of sound waves in air.
- Match both to the correct option.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
- When you pluck a string, you pull it sideways and release it. The string’s elements move up/down (or side-to-side) while the disturbance travels along the length of the string.
- Displacement ⟂ direction of travel ⟹ transverse wave on the string.
- The vibrating string sets nearby air molecules into oscillation by pushing/pulling on the air, creating regions of higher and lower pressure that move outward.
- Oscillation ‖ direction of travel ⟹ longitudinal wave in the air.
- Therefore: Transverse waves on the string cause longitudinal waves in the air ⟹ option C.
Key Takeaways
- Plucked strings produce transverse waves along the string.
- Sound in air is longitudinal (pressure) waves.
- The wave type depends on oscillation direction relative to propagation direction.
Common Mistakes
- Thinking that because the string moves sideways, the air wave must also be transverse.
- Mixing up “direction of vibration” (particle motion) with “direction the wave travels”.
- Believing air can support transverse mechanical waves (it cannot in ordinary conditions because it does not sustain shear).
Things to Be Careful About
- The wave on the string and the wave in the air are in different media and can be different types.
- For sound, always focus on compressions/rarefactions and pressure variation: this indicates a longitudinal wave.
A diffraction grating with lines per metre is used to diffract light of various wavelengths .
The graph shows the relation between the diffraction angle and for different wavelengths in the th order interference pattern.
What is the gradient of the graph?
Options
A
B
C
D
Working
Diffraction grating equation:
With lines per metre,
So
Comparing with , the gradient is .
Answer
A
A
Background Concept
A diffraction grating produces maxima (bright fringes) when light from adjacent slits (lines) interferes constructively. The condition for the th order maximum is
where:
- is the slit spacing (grating spacing),
- is the diffraction angle for that order,
- is the order number (),
- is the wavelength.
If the grating has lines per metre, then the spacing between adjacent lines is
Understanding the Question
The graph has vertical axis and horizontal axis , and it is a straight line through the origin. You are asked for the gradient of this graph, i.e.
The interference pattern is specified to be in the th order, so is a constant for the graph.
Approach
- Start from the grating equation .
- Replace with .
- Rearrange into the form .
- Read off that constant as the gradient.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
From the grating equation:
Rearrange for :
Use :
This matches the straight-line form:
So the gradient of a plot of (y-axis) against (x-axis) is
Therefore the correct option is A.
Key Takeaways
- For a grating, .
- Line density and spacing are reciprocals: .
- If vs is plotted and , then the gradient is the coefficient .
Common Mistakes
- Using instead of for the spacing .
- Forgetting that the graph is of (not ) against .
- Rearranging to get in terms of and then inverting the gradient incorrectly.
Things to Be Careful About
- Keep track of which quantity is on each axis: gradient is always .
- is in , so the gradient has units , consistent with being dimensionless and in metres.
A stationary sound wave is formed in the air column inside a tube that is open at both ends.
The stationary wave has three nodes.
How many antinodes does it have?
Options
A
B
C
D
Working
For a tube open at both ends, each open end is a displacement antinode.
With nodes in the tube, the number of antinodes is one more than the number of nodes:
Answer
D
D
Background Concept
A stationary (standing) wave is formed by the superposition of two waves of the same frequency travelling in opposite directions. This produces:
- Nodes: points of zero displacement (air particles do not oscillate there).
- Antinodes: points of maximum displacement.
For an air column in a tube:
- An open end is (approximately) a displacement antinode, because the air at the open end can move freely.
- A closed end would be a displacement node, because the air cannot move at the boundary.
In a tube open at both ends, there is a displacement antinode at each end.
Understanding the Question
You are told:
- The tube is open at both ends.
- The stationary wave pattern in the air column has three nodes.
You must determine how many antinodes correspond to that pattern and choose the correct option.
Approach
Use the boundary condition that both ends are antinodes. Then use the general counting rule for an open-open tube: between each pair of adjacent nodes there is an antinode, and there is also an antinode at each end. This leads to:
- number of antinodes number of nodes .
Step-by-Step Reasoning
- Because both ends are open, the pattern must start and end with an antinodes at the ends.
- Along the tube the pattern alternates: where is antinode and is node.
- If there are nodes, the sequence is: Counting antinodes gives .
So the correct option is D.
Key Takeaways
- Open end of an air column is a displacement antinode.
- For a tube open at both ends:
Common Mistakes
- Treating an open end as a node (that is for a closed end).
- Counting pressure nodes/antinodes instead of displacement nodes/antinodes (they are swapped).
- Forgetting that there are antinodes at both ends, leading to answers off by 1.
Things to Be Careful About
- The question is about nodes/antinodes of the stationary sound wave in the air column (i.e. displacement pattern unless otherwise stated).
- Ensure you apply the correct end conditions: open-open, open-closed, and closed-closed tubes have different node/antinode patterns.
Interference fringes of separation are observed on a screen at a distance of from a double slit that is illuminated by yellow light of wavelength .
At which distance from the double slit would interference fringes of the same separation be observed when using blue light of wavelength ?
Options
A
B
C
D
Working
For double-slit fringes,
For the same slit separation and same fringe spacing :
So
Answer
D
D
Background Concept
In a double-slit experiment, bright fringes occur where the path difference between the two slits is an integer number of wavelengths. This gives a simple expression for the spacing of fringes on a distant screen:
where:
- is the separation (spacing) between adjacent fringes,
- is the wavelength of the light,
- is the distance from the slits to the screen,
- is the slit separation.
This formula applies for small angles (screen far compared with slit separation), which is the standard condition for A Level double-slit questions.
Understanding the Question
With yellow light of wavelength and screen distance , a fringe separation is observed. The question asks: if we switch to blue light of wavelength , what new screen distance will give the same fringe separation (with the same double slit, so the same )?
Approach
Start from the fringe spacing equation. Since the slit separation is unchanged and the fringe spacing is required to stay the same, compare the two situations using ratios to avoid needing the value of .
Step-by-Step Reasoning
From
rearrange for :
So for fixed and fixed :
Hence,
Substitute , :
With :
So the correct option is D.
Key Takeaways
- Use for double-slit fringe spacing.
- If the slit separation is unchanged and you want the same , then must change inversely with .
- Shorter wavelength (blue) requires a larger screen distance to keep the same spacing.
Common Mistakes
- Assuming without considering that is being changed to keep constant.
- Inverting the ratio incorrectly (using instead of ).
- Forgetting that is unchanged (it’s the same physical double slit).
Things to Be Careful About
- Keep track of what is constant: here and are constant, so must vary with .
- Units: both wavelengths are in nm, so the ratio is safe without converting to metres.
- Significant figures: the options guide the precision; matches option D exactly.
What is the definition of potential difference across a component?
Options
A energy transferred per unit charge
B energy transferred per unit current
C energy transferred per unit distance
D energy transferred per unit time
Working
Potential difference is defined as energy transferred (work done) per unit charge:
So the correct option is energy transferred per unit charge.
Answer
A
A
Background Concept
Potential difference (p.d.) across a component measures how much energy is transferred when electric charge passes through that component.
It is defined by the ratio
where:
- is the potential difference in volts (),
- is the energy transferred (work done) in joules (),
- is the charge in coulombs ().
So .
Understanding the Question
The question asks for the definition of potential difference across a component. That means we should identify which option describes what a volt means in terms of energy transfer and charge.
The options include “per unit charge”, “per unit current”, “per unit distance”, and “per unit time”. Only one matches .
Approach
Recall the fundamental definition . Then compare it directly to the answer choices:
- “energy transferred per unit charge” corresponds exactly to .
Step-by-Step Reasoning
- Start from the definition:
- Interpret this in words: potential difference is energy transferred per unit charge.
- Match to the options: this is option A.
Key Takeaways
- Potential difference is energy transferred (work done) per coulomb of charge.
- The defining equation is and the unit is .
Common Mistakes
- Choosing “energy transferred per unit current” (confusing with relationships like ; power is energy per unit time, not p.d.).
- Choosing “energy transferred per unit time” (that is power: ).
- Mixing up p.d. with electric field strength (which involves distance: for a uniform field).
Things to Be Careful About
- The question asks for a definition, so you should use the fundamental ratio , not a derived formula like (which only applies to ohmic conductors under certain conditions).
- Ensure “per unit charge” is explicitly identified; p.d. is not defined per unit current or per unit time.
The diagram shows a cell of negligible internal resistance connected to a switch and two resistors of resistances and .
The circuit also contains two ammeters and .
The reading on is when the switch is open.
What are the readings on and after the switch is closed?
Options
| reading on X/A | reading on Y/A | |
|---|---|---|
| A | 4.0 | 1.3 |
| B | 4.0 | 2.7 |
| C | 6.0 | 2.0 |
| D | 6.0 | 4.0 |
Working
Switch open: only resistor conducts, so
Switch closed: in parallel with .
Total current (ammeter ):
Current in branch (ammeter ):
Answer
C
C
Background Concept
In d.c. circuits with ideal components:
- An ideal cell of negligible internal resistance provides a fixed potential difference (p.d.) .
- Ideal ammeters have negligible resistance, so they do not affect the circuit.
- Ohm's law for a resistor:
- For resistors in parallel (same p.d. across each branch):
- Kirchhoff’s first law (junction rule): total current into a junction equals total current out, so the supply current equals the sum of branch currents.
Understanding the Question
With the switch open, the lower branch is broken, so current can only flow through the middle branch containing the resistor . Ammeter measures the total current supplied by the cell.
When the switch is closed, the lower branch becomes a second conducting path containing (and ammeter ). The resistor branch and the branch are then in parallel, so the total current (reading on ) increases, and reads the current in the branch.
Approach
- Use the open-switch condition to determine the cell p.d. in terms of .
- With the switch closed, find the equivalent resistance of in parallel with .
- Use to get the new reading on .
- Use the fact that each parallel branch has p.d. to find the branch current through (reading on ).
Step-by-Step Reasoning
1) Switch open (only in the circuit):
The given current is through resistor , so the cell p.d. is
2) Switch closed (two parallel branches):
Now the resistors and are connected in parallel, so
so
3) Total current (ammeter ):
The supply p.d. is still , hence
4) Current in the branch (ammeter ):
Each parallel branch has the same p.d. , so for the branch,
So the correct option is the one with and .
Key Takeaways
- When a new parallel branch is added, the equivalent resistance decreases and the total current from the source increases.
- In parallel circuits, the p.d. across each branch is the same as the supply p.d.
- Use an initial condition to determine the supply p.d. (or e.m.f.) before analysing the modified circuit.
Common Mistakes
- Treating and as series after the switch closes (they are in parallel between the same two nodes).
- Using instead of the parallel formula.
- Assuming the total current stays after adding a parallel branch.
- Forgetting that measures only the current in the branch, not the total current.
Things to Be Careful About
- The phrase “cell of negligible internal resistance” means the terminal p.d. equals the e.m.f. and does not change with current.
- Ammeter resistance is taken as negligible; otherwise it would alter the branch resistance.
- Keep the algebra in terms of until the end; cancels cleanly when finding the new currents.
The – characteristics for four components, , , and , are shown.
Which component has the greatest resistance when the potential difference across it is ?
Options
A
B
C
D
Working
At the same potential difference ,
So the greatest resistance corresponds to the smallest current at .
From the graph, component has the smallest current at .
Answer
D
Background Concept
For any component, the resistance at a particular operating point is defined by
On an – graph, if you choose a particular voltage , you can read off the corresponding current for each component. At that same voltage, the component with the smallest current must have the largest value of , hence the greatest resistance.
(For a straight-line ohmic conductor, the gradient of an – graph is constant and equals . For non-linear components, the gradient changes with , but the question here asks for at , not the gradient.)
Understanding the Question
A dashed vertical line marks a fixed potential difference . You must decide, among components to , which has the greatest resistance at that voltage. That means: at the point where each curve meets the line , compare the currents.
Approach
- Use at the voltage .
- Since is the same for all components, compare the currents at .
- The smallest current gives the greatest resistance.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
- At , each component has a current given by where its curve crosses the vertical line.
- The graph description states that curve is “lying lowest at ”, meaning it has the smallest current value at that voltage.
- Therefore, for component ,
and because is the smallest, is the largest.
So the correct option is .
Key Takeaways
- At a fixed voltage, compare resistances using .
- On an – plot, the component with the smallest at that has the greatest .
- Don’t confuse “resistance” () with “gradient” (), especially for non-linear characteristics.
Common Mistakes
- Choosing the steepest line because it “looks bigger”: a steeper – line means larger current for a given voltage, hence smaller resistance.
- Using gradient to decide resistance for non-linear curves when the question is asking for at a specific point.
- Comparing values at the same current instead of the same voltage (the question specifies ).
Things to Be Careful About
- Ensure you are comparing currents at exactly (use the dashed line, not another point).
- Remember: for a fixed , resistance increases as current decreases.
- For non-linear curves, “resistance at ” means the ratio at that point (unless the question explicitly asks for differential resistance using the tangent gradient).
A cylindrical wire has cross-sectional area and number density of free electrons .
The wire has current and the free electrons have average drift speed .
A second cylindrical wire has cross-sectional area and number density of free electrons .
In this wire, the free electrons have average drift speed .
What is the current in the second wire?
Options
A
B
C
D
Working
For a wire,
First wire:
Second wire:
Answer
C
C
Background Concept
Current in a metal can be modelled as moving charge carriers (free electrons). If:
- is the number density of charge carriers (number per unit volume),
- is the cross-sectional area of the wire,
- is the mean drift speed of the carriers,
- is the charge on each carrier (for electrons, magnitude ),
then in time the carriers move a distance , so the volume that passes a cross-section is . The number of carriers in that volume is , so the charge that passes is . Hence
Understanding the Question
You are given a first wire with area , number density , drift speed , and current . A second wire has changed values:
- cross-sectional area becomes ,
- number density becomes ,
- drift speed becomes .
You must find the new current in terms of .
Approach
Use the drift current equation . Since is the same (electrons in both wires), the current scales directly with the product . Multiply the scale factors for , , and to get the factor by which the current changes.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Start with
For the second wire,
Substitute the given changes:
Collect the numerical factor:
so
Therefore the correct option is C.
Key Takeaways
- Drift current in a conductor is given by .
- When comparing two situations with the same charge carrier, scales with .
- For MCQs, multiplying scale factors is often the fastest route.
Common Mistakes
- Forgetting one of the factors (, , or ) when scaling.
- Treating the electron charge as negative and trying to make the current negative (current magnitude is what is asked).
- Thinking halving area must halve current, ignoring that and also changed.
Things to Be Careful About
- Ensure you multiply all three scale changes: , , and .
- The equation uses number density (per unit volume), not total number of electrons.
- The question asks for the current, so give the result in terms of and then select the matching option.
An electric current is formed by moving charge carriers.
What is not a possible charge on a charge carrier?
Options
A
B
C
D
Working
Charge on a carrier must be an integer multiple of the elementary charge .
Check options as multiples of :
- (possible)
- (not integer, not possible)
- (possible)
- (possible)
Answer
B
B
Background Concept
Electric charge is quantised: any isolated charge you find on a particle or ion comes in discrete packets of the elementary charge .
Mathematically:
where:
- is the charge on the carrier (in ),
- ,
- is an integer ().
So a charge carrier can have (e.g. a proton), (an electron), or etc. (multiply-charged ions), but not fractional multiples like .
Understanding the Question
You are given four possible values for the charge on a moving charge carrier in an electric current. The question asks which one is not possible.
So we test each option against the rule using .
Approach
- Take .
- For each option, divide the given charge by to see if you get an integer.
- The one that gives a non-integer value is not possible.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Compute for each option:
- A:
Integer, so possible.
- B:
Not an integer, so not possible.
- C:
Integer, so possible.
- D:
Integer, so possible.
Therefore the only impossible charge is option B.
Key Takeaways
- Charge is quantised: .
- The elementary charge is .
- A charge value is possible only if it is an integer multiple of .
Common Mistakes
- Forgetting that must be an integer and accepting fractional values like .
- Using the wrong value of (or forgetting the power of ten).
- Thinking only is allowed: multiply-charged ions can have etc.
Things to Be Careful About
- Keep the sign: negative charges correspond to electrons/negative ions, positive to positive ions.
- When dividing by , the cancels, so you can compare the leading numbers (e.g. ) cleanly.
- Only a non-integer multiple makes the option impossible.
Which description of Kirchhoff’s first law is correct?
Options
A It considers the currents at a junction in a circuit and is a consequence of the conservation of charge.
B It considers the currents at a junction in a circuit and is a consequence of the conservation of energy.
C It considers the electromotive forces and potential differences in a circuit loop and is a consequence of the conservation of charge.
D It considers the electromotive forces and potential differences in a circuit loop and is a consequence of the conservation of energy.
Kirchhoff’s first law applies at a junction: the total current into a junction equals the total current out, because charge is conserved.
Answer
A
A
Background Concept
Kirchhoff’s circuit laws come from conservation principles:
- Kirchhoff’s first law (junction rule): charge cannot build up at a junction in a steady circuit, so charge per unit time (current) is conserved there.
Mathematically at any junction:
- Kirchhoff’s second law (loop rule): energy is conserved around a closed loop, so the sum of emfs equals the sum of potential drops.
Understanding the Question
The options differ in two ways:
- Whether the law refers to currents at a junction or emfs/p.d.s in a loop.
- Whether it is a consequence of conservation of charge or conservation of energy.
You must pick the description that matches Kirchhoff’s first law.
Approach
Identify what Kirchhoff’s first law talks about (junction or loop), then match it to the correct conservation principle (charge or energy).
Step-by-Step Reasoning
- Kirchhoff’s first law is the junction rule, so it must involve currents at a junction.
- Current is rate of flow of charge, and in a steady circuit charge does not accumulate at the junction, so it follows from conservation of charge.
- Therefore the correct statement is: “currents at a junction … consequence of conservation of charge” which is Option A.
Key Takeaways
- First law: junction, currents, conservation of charge.
- Second law: loop, emf and p.d., conservation of energy.
Common Mistakes
- Mixing up first and second laws (choosing a loop/energy statement for the first law).
- Thinking “energy” applies to the junction rule; energy conservation is for loops, not junction current sums.
Things to Be Careful About
- The keyword junction strongly indicates Kirchhoff’s first law.
- The keyword loop strongly indicates Kirchhoff’s second law.
- In steady-state circuit analysis, assuming no charge accumulation at a junction is what justifies the junction rule.
Two resistors of resistances and are connected in parallel.
The value of is less than that of .
Which statement about the combined resistance of the two resistors is correct?
Options
A It is between and .
B It is equal to .
C It is greater than .
D It is less than .
Working
For resistors in parallel,
Since ,
Answer
D
D
Background Concept
For two resistors connected in parallel, the potential difference across each resistor is the same, and the total current is the sum of the branch currents. Using Ohm's law in each branch leads to the standard result:
This form is very useful for comparisons: adding a positive term on the right-hand side makes larger, so must become smaller.
A key qualitative fact: a parallel combination always has an equivalent resistance less than the smallest individual resistance.
Understanding the Question
You have two resistors with resistances and connected in parallel, with . The question asks which statement about the combined (equivalent) resistance is correct.
So we need to decide whether is between them, equal to , greater than , or less than .
Approach
Use the parallel formula:
Then use the fact that is positive to compare with , which directly tells us whether is greater or less than .
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Start with the parallel relation:
Because resistances are positive, and therefore:
So adding to makes the right-hand side larger than alone:
Taking reciprocals reverses the inequality (because all quantities are positive):
Hence the combined resistance is less than the smaller resistor , which matches option D.
You can also sanity-check physically: putting resistors in parallel creates an extra path for current, increasing total current for the same voltage, so the equivalent resistance must decrease.
Key Takeaways
- For parallel resistors:
- Adding a resistor in parallel always reduces the total resistance.
- The equivalent resistance of parallel resistors is always less than the smallest individual resistance.
Common Mistakes
- Using the series rule for a parallel connection.
- Thinking the equivalent resistance must be “between” and (that is true for some averaging situations, but not for parallel resistors).
- Forgetting that taking reciprocals of an inequality flips the sign (when quantities are positive).
Things to Be Careful About
- Make sure you recognise the circuit type: parallel means both resistors connect across the same two nodes.
- Remember all resistances here are positive, so comparison arguments using inequalities are valid.
- Do not confuse current division in parallel with voltage division in series: in parallel, voltage is the same across branches, and currents add.
The diagram shows four identical resistors connected in a circuit.
Which resistor dissipates the most power?
Options
A
B
C
D
Working
Let each resistor be and the cell p.d. be .
Parallel section: in parallel with :
Total resistance:
Total current (and current in ):
Power in :
Voltage across the parallel section:
For :
For branch (current ), each of and :
Hence is greatest.
Answer
A
A
Background Concept
In resistor circuits, the power dissipated (rate of electrical energy transfer to heat) in a component can be found using any of:
Which form is most convenient depends on what you know for that resistor: the current through it, or the potential difference across it.
For series and parallel combinations:
- Series: resistances add: and the same current flows through each.
- Parallel: the same p.d. is across each branch and
Understanding the Question
You have four identical resistors .
- Resistor is in series with a parallel network.
- In that parallel network, one branch is and in series (so ), and the other branch is just (so ).
The question asks: which single resistor dissipates the most power?
Because all resistors have the same resistance , the resistor with the largest current through it will have the largest power, unless the currents are close enough that voltage-based comparison is easier. Here, finding currents is straightforward once we reduce the network.
Approach
- Replace the series pair with an equivalent resistance .
- Combine in parallel with (resistor ) to get the equivalent resistance of the parallel section.
- Add resistor in series to get total resistance and total current.
- Use the voltage across the parallel section to find branch currents (or directly compare powers using ).
- Compute (or compare) and choose the largest.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Let each resistor have resistance and the cell p.d. be .
1) Simplify the network
and are in series, so
This is in parallel with (which is ). So the equivalent parallel resistance is
2) Find total current
Now (resistance ) is in series with :
So the current supplied by the cell (and through resistor ) is
3) Power in resistor A
Use :
4) Voltage across the parallel section
The p.d. across is , so
Hence the p.d. left for the parallel network is
5) Power in D, and in B and C
Resistor has full across it:
In the other branch, the total resistance is , so the branch current is
That same current flows through each of and (series), so
6) Compare
So resistor dissipates the most power.
Key Takeaways
- Reduce circuits systematically: series first, then parallel, then series again.
- In series, current is the same; in parallel, voltage is the same.
- For identical resistors, comparing powers often reduces to comparing currents (via ) or voltages (via ).
Common Mistakes
- Treating and as parallel rather than series.
- Assuming the same current flows through all resistors (only true for a purely series circuit).
- Comparing voltages across resistors in different branches without first identifying which ones share the same p.d.
- Forgetting that in the branch, the branch p.d. is split between two resistors, so each of and has only half of .
Things to Be Careful About
- Use consistent symbols: take each resistor as and keep for the cell p.d.
- When using , ensure is the p.d. across that particular resistor (not across the whole parallel section unless it is that resistor).
- When using , ensure is the current through that resistor (total current only applies to here).
Nuclide with proton number undergoes decay to form nuclide .
The decay may be represented by the equation shown.
What is the proton number of and which particle is represented by the symbol ?
Options
| proton number of Y | particle represented by W | |
|---|---|---|
| A | antineutrino | |
| B | neutrino | |
| C | antineutrino | |
| D | neutrino |
Working
In (\beta^+) decay a proton changes to a neutron:
So the proton number decreases by 1, giving proton number of (Y) as (Z-1), and (W) is a neutrino.
Answer
B
B
Background Concept
In nuclear decays, certain quantities are conserved:
- Proton number (and hence electric charge) is conserved.
- Nucleon number (mass number) is conserved in (\alpha), (\beta), (\gamma) decays.
- Lepton number is conserved in (\beta) processes.
For (\beta^+) decay (positron emission), the transformation inside the nucleus is
where (e^+) is the positron ((\beta^+)) and (\nu_e) is an electron neutrino.
Understanding the Question
You are told a nuclide (X) with proton number (Z) undergoes (\beta^+) decay:
You must determine:
- The proton number of the daughter nuclide (Y).
- Whether (W) is a neutrino or an antineutrino.
Then match these to the table options.
Approach
- Use what (\beta^+) decay means at nucleon level (proton turns into neutron).
- Deduce the change in proton number (Z).
- Identify the accompanying neutral particle from the standard (\beta^+) decay equation (and lepton number conservation).
Step-by-Step Reasoning
- In (\beta^+) decay, one proton becomes a neutron, so the nucleus has one fewer proton afterwards.
Therefore the proton number changes:
So (Y) has proton number (Z-1).
- The emitted (\beta^+) particle is a positron (e^+). To conserve lepton number:
- A positron has lepton number (-1).
- The initial nucleus has lepton number (0).
So another particle with lepton number (+1) must be emitted: that is a neutrino (specifically (\nu_e)), not an antineutrino.
Thus (W) is a neutrino.
- Matching to the options: (Z-1) and neutrino corresponds to B.
Key Takeaways
- (\beta^+) decay: (p \to n + e^+ + \nu_e).
- Proton number decreases by 1 in (\beta^+) decay.
- (\beta^+) decay emits a neutrino; (\beta^-) decay emits an antineutrino.
Common Mistakes
- Thinking (\beta^+) increases (Z) (it decreases (Z) because a proton is lost).
- Swapping neutrino and antineutrino: (\beta^+) gives neutrino, (\beta^-) gives antineutrino (at this syllabus level).
- Forgetting that charge/proton number must be conserved in the decay equation.
Things to Be Careful About
- The symbol (\beta^+) means a positron ((e^+)), not an electron.
- Proton number (Z) is the number of protons; it determines the element, so changing (Z) changes the element.
- Keep the conservation laws consistent: charge (proton number) and lepton number together fix both the daughter nucleus and whether a neutrino or antineutrino appears.
Which fundamental particles form a hadron?
Options
A leptons
B nucleons
C photons
D quarks
Working
Hadrons are particles that experience the strong interaction and are made of quarks (baryons: three quarks; mesons: quark–antiquark).
Answer
D
D
Background Concept
In particle physics, particles are grouped by how they interact and what they are made of.
- Hadrons are composite particles that take part in the strong interaction.
- The strong interaction acts on quarks (and gluons), so any particle built from quarks is a hadron.
- There are two main types of hadrons:
- Baryons: made of three quarks (e.g. proton, neutron).
- Mesons: made of a quark and an antiquark.
Leptons (e.g. electron, neutrino) are not made of quarks, and photons are gauge bosons (carriers of the electromagnetic interaction).
Understanding the Question
The question asks which fundamental particles form a hadron. Among the options, only one corresponds to the actual constituents of hadrons.
Approach
Use the definition: hadrons are particles composed of quarks (either or ). Then match that statement to the given options.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
- A hadron is a particle that experiences the strong interaction.
- The strong interaction acts on quarks, and hadrons are composite particles built from quarks.
- Therefore, the fundamental particles that form a hadron are quarks.
- Option check:
- A leptons: not constituents of hadrons.
- B nucleons: protons and neutrons are examples of hadrons (baryons) but are not fundamental constituents.
- C photons: not constituents of hadrons.
- D quarks: correct.
So the answer is D.
Key Takeaways
- Hadrons are made of quarks.
- Baryons: ; Mesons: .
- Leptons are a separate family; photons are force carriers.
Common Mistakes
- Choosing nucleons because protons/neutrons are hadrons: true, but the question asks what forms them (their constituents), not for an example.
- Confusing photons (force carriers) with constituent particles.
- Thinking “hadron” means “any particle in the nucleus”; electrons are in atoms but are leptons, not hadrons.
Things to Be Careful About
- Read “form” as “are made of / constituents of”, not “are an example of”.
- “Fundamental particles” here refers to quarks/leptons (and gauge bosons), not composite particles like nucleons.
The unstable nuclide decays through a sequence of emissions of and particles to form the stable nuclide .
How many and particles are emitted during this decay process?
Options
| -particles | particles | |
|---|---|---|
| A | 1 | 1 |
| B | 2 | 1 |
| C | 2 | 3 |
| D | 3 | 2 |
Working
For emission: decreases by each time.
After : changes .
For emission: increases by each time (and unchanged).
Answer
C
C
Background Concept
In nuclear decay sequences, two conservation ideas are used:
- Nucleon number (total protons + neutrons) is conserved overall, except that it is redistributed into the emitted particle(s).
- Proton number (charge number) must balance as well.
Key changes for common decays:
- decay emits a nucleus, so:
- decreases by
- decreases by
- decay emits an electron (). In the nucleus a neutron changes into a proton, so:
- stays the same
- increases by
Understanding the Question
You start with nuclide and finish with stable nuclide after a sequence of and emissions.
We must determine how many of each emission is needed to change:
and then match that pair to the table of options.
Approach
- Use the change in nucleon number to find the number of decays, since only changes .
- Use the change in proton number to find the number of decays, after accounting for the change caused by the decays.
- Select the option that matches .
Step-by-Step Reasoning
1) Find from nucleon number .
Each emission reduces by .
So, there are 2 decays.
2) Track what happens to after these decays.
Each decay reduces by , so after decays:
But the final nuclide has , so we must increase from to .
3) Find .
Each decay increases by (and does not change ), so:
So, there are 3 decays.
This corresponds to option C: and .
Key Takeaways
- Use to count decays because does not change .
- Then use to count decays, remembering that decreases by each time.
- Solve with simple simultaneous accounting rather than trying to write the whole decay chain.
Common Mistakes
- Treating as decreasing (it increases by ).
- Forgetting that changes both and .
- Solving for directly from without first including the effect of the decays.
Things to Be Careful About
- Keep the order of logic clear: determine from first.
- Check consistency: after finding , always recompute the intermediate before finding .
- Remember: changes nuclear composition (neutron to proton) so stays constant.
Which statement about radioactive decay is correct?
Options
A Neutrinos are always emitted during -decay.
B The -particles emitted from a radioactive sample have a continuous range of kinetic energies.
C The particles emitted from a radioactive sample have a continuous range of kinetic energies.
D The proton number of a nucleus decreases by four when it undergoes -decay.
Working
In decay, the electron shares the available decay energy with an (anti)neutrino, so the emitted particles have a continuous range of kinetic energies.
Answer
C
C
Background Concept
Radioactive decays conserve charge, nucleon number and energy.
-
-decay: a nucleus emits an -particle (a helium nucleus, ). The parent nucleus changes as
Because this is essentially a two-body decay (daughter nucleus + ), the -particle is emitted with discrete kinetic energy (for a given transition), not a continuous spread.
-
decay: a neutron in the nucleus converts to a proton, emitting an electron and an antineutrino:
The electron and antineutrino share the available energy in varying proportions, so the electron (the particle) has a continuous range of kinetic energies.
Understanding the Question
You are asked which single statement (A–D) about radioactive decay is correct.
So we check each option against the known features:
- whether neutrinos appear in -decay,
- whether or particles have continuous/discrete kinetic energies,
- how proton number changes in -decay.
Approach
Evaluate each option using the standard decay equations and the key idea: two-body decays give discrete energies, while three-body decays (like decay including a neutrino) give continuous energies.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
A: “Neutrinos are always emitted during -decay.”
- False. Neutrinos are associated with decay (to conserve energy, momentum and angular momentum), not ordinary decay.
B: “The -particles ... have a continuous range of kinetic energies.”
- False. decay gives (approximately) fixed kinetic energy for a given transition (discrete lines), because it is a two-body decay.
C: “The particles ... have a continuous range of kinetic energies.”
- True. In decay, the emitted electron shares energy with the antineutrino, so the electron energy varies continuously from near zero up to a maximum.
D: “The proton number ... decreases by four when it undergoes -decay.”
- False. In decay, proton number decreases by 2 (from to ) and nucleon number decreases by 4 (from to ).
Therefore the correct statement is C.
Key Takeaways
- -decay: , ; typically discrete energies.
- decay includes an antineutrino; electron energy spectrum is continuous.
- Continuous spectrum is a key signature of neutrino involvement.
Common Mistakes
- Confusing the change in nucleon number () with the change in proton number () in decay.
- Thinking particles have a continuous spectrum (they do not for a given transition).
- Stating “neutrinos are always emitted” without specifying decay.
Things to Be Careful About
- Use correct notation: emission involves an electron (and an antineutrino).
- Remember: two-body decay discrete kinetic energy; three-body decay continuous kinetic energy.
- The question says “from a radioactive sample”: even then, individual emissions remain in discrete lines (there may be multiple lines from different transitions, but not a continuous range).
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