Chemistry 9701/13 — October/November 2025
Cambridge AS Level · Multiple Choice (AS Level) · answer key with instant marking and worked solutions
Topics Atoms, Molecules and Stoichiometry · Electrochemistry · Chemical Bonding · Equilibria · Hydrocarbons · Hydroxy Compounds · +14 more
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What is the electronic configuration for the particle ?
Options
A
B
C
D
Working
Al has , so neutral Al has 13 electrons. has lost one electron, giving 12 electrons.
Filling order: (total 12 electrons).
Answer
B
B
Background Concept
An atom is described by its proton number and mass number . For a neutral atom, the number of electrons equals . A positive ion has lost electrons, so its electron count is minus the charge. Electrons occupy orbitals in order of increasing energy: , , , , , ... with maximum occupancies 2, 2, 6, 2, 6 respectively.
Understanding the Question
The particle is written : the lower number 13 is the proton number, and the upper number 27 is the mass number. The charge means one electron has been removed from the neutral aluminium atom. The question asks for the ground-state electronic configuration of this ion.
Approach
First find how many electrons the ion contains. Then fill the orbitals in the correct energy order until all electrons are placed. Compare the resulting configuration with the options.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
- Neutral Al has , so it has 13 electrons.
- has lost one electron: electrons.
- Fill orbitals in order:
- (2 electrons)
- (2, total 4)
- (6, total 10)
- (2, total 12)
- The configuration is , which is option B.
Option A places the last two electrons as ; this is not the ground state because must fill before . Option C has 14 electrons, which would be a neutral silicon atom, not . Option D has far too many electrons and incorrectly includes and orbitals.
Key Takeaways
For an ion, always adjust the electron count for the charge before writing the configuration. The mass number is not needed for electron configuration. Fill subshells in order of increasing energy.
Common Mistakes
- Using the mass number 27 as the number of electrons.
- Forgetting the charge and writing the neutral Al configuration .
- Filling before is fully occupied.
- Including electrons for a species with only 12 electrons.
Things to Be Careful About
- The lower number in is the proton number; the upper number is the mass number.
- A charge means electrons have been removed; a charge means electrons have been added.
- Check the total number of electrons by summing the superscripts in the configuration.
- Use the Aufbau order for this element.
The data in the table gives the 5th to the 10th ionisation energies of three elements from Period 3 of the Periodic Table.
| element | 5th | 6th | 7th | 8th | 9th | 10th |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| X | 6274 | 21 269 | 25 398 | 29 855 | 35 868 | 40 960 |
| Y | 7012 | 8 496 | 27 107 | 31 671 | 36 579 | 43 140 |
| Z | 6542 | 9 362 | 11 018 | 33 606 | 38 601 | 43 963 |
What are the correct identities of these three elements?
Options
| element X | element Y | element Z | |
|---|---|---|---|
| A | Na | Mg | Al |
| B | Mg | Al | Si |
| C | P | S | Cl |
| D | S | Cl | Ar |
Working
For each element, the largest jump between successive ionisation energies marks the point where the next electron is removed from the inner 2p subshell rather than the outer 3rd shell. The number of electrons removed before this jump equals the number of outer-shell electrons.
- X: large jump between the 5th and 6th IE (6274 → 21 269) → 5 outer electrons → Group 15 → P
- Y: large jump between the 6th and 7th IE (8496 → 27 107) → 6 outer electrons → Group 16 → S
- Z: large jump between the 7th and 8th IE (11 018 → 33 606) → 7 outer electrons → Group 17 → Cl
Answer
C (X = P, Y = S, Z = Cl)
C
Background Concept
Ionisation energy is the energy required to remove one mole of electrons from one mole of gaseous atoms or ions, producing one mole of gaseous ions with one more positive charge. The first ionisation energy removes the first (outermost, most loosely held) electron; each successive ionisation energy removes the next electron from an increasingly positive ion.
Successive ionisation energies always increase because each electron is removed from a more positively charged ion, so the remaining electrons are held more tightly. The increase, however, is not smooth. When the electron being removed comes from a different, inner shell — closer to the nucleus and less shielded by other electrons — there is a dramatic step-like jump in ionisation energy. This jump is the key signature: it marks the transition from removing outer-shell (valence) electrons to removing inner-shell electrons.
For a main-group element, the number of electrons removed before the first large jump equals the number of outer-shell electrons, which equals the group number.
All Period 3 elements have their valence electrons in the third shell:
- Na: (1 outer electron)
- Mg: (2)
- Al: (3)
- Si: (4)
- P: (5)
- S: (6)
- Cl: (7)
- Ar: (8)
For phosphorus, removing five electrons gives with the configuration — the neon noble-gas core. The sixth electron must come from the 2p subshell, which is much closer to the nucleus and far less shielded, so the sixth ionisation energy is dramatically larger than the fifth.
Understanding the Question
The table supplies the 5th through 10th ionisation energies for three unknown Period 3 elements, X, Y and Z. The task is to identify each element by finding where the large jump occurs in its series of ionisation energies.
The command is "What are the correct identities" — a deduction. For each element we must count how many electrons are removed before the big jump; that number tells us the number of outer-shell electrons and hence the group and identity of the element.
Approach
For each element:
- Examine the successive differences (or ratios) between consecutive ionisation energies.
- Identify the largest jump — the biggest relative increase.
- The number of electrons removed before that jump equals the number of outer-shell electrons.
- Match that number to a Period 3 element.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Element X: 5th = 6274, 6th = 21 269, 7th = 25 398, 8th = 29 855, 9th = 35 868, 10th = 40 960.
The jump from 6274 to 21 269 is roughly a factor of 3.4, while the subsequent jumps (25 398, 29 855, 35 868, 40 960) are all modest increases. The large jump is therefore between the 5th and 6th ionisation energies. This means the 6th electron is removed from the inner 2p subshell, so X has 5 outer-shell electrons. A Period 3 element with 5 outer electrons is phosphorus (P), Group 15.
Element Y: 5th = 7012, 6th = 8496, 7th = 27 107, ...
The jump from 8496 to 27 107 is roughly a factor of 3.2 — the large jump is between the 6th and 7th ionisation energies. Y therefore has 6 outer-shell electrons, identifying it as sulfur (S), Group 16.
Element Z: 5th = 6542, 6th = 9362, 7th = 11 018, 8th = 33 606, ...
The jumps 6542 → 9362 and 9362 → 11 018 are small; the large jump is from 11 018 to 33 606, between the 7th and 8th ionisation energies. Z therefore has 7 outer-shell electrons, identifying it as chlorine (Cl), Group 17.
So X = P, Y = S, Z = Cl, which is option C.
Why the distractors are wrong:
- A (Na, Mg, Al): these elements have 1, 2 and 3 outer-shell electrons, so their large jumps would appear between the 1st–2nd, 2nd–3rd and 3rd–4th ionisation energies — all before the 5th ionisation energy. None of the data shown would contain a jump, so A cannot be correct.
- B (Mg, Al, Si): 2, 3 and 4 outer electrons; again the jumps would occur before the 5th ionisation energy. Incorrect.
- D (S, Cl, Ar): S and Cl correctly have 6 and 7 outer electrons, matching Y and Z, but Ar has 8 outer-shell electrons, so its jump would be between the 8th and 9th ionisation energies. Element X shows a jump between the 5th and 6th, so X cannot be S. Incorrect.
Key Takeaways
- The position of the large jump in successive ionisation energies reveals the number of outer-shell electrons and hence the group of a main-group element.
- The jump occurs because the next electron is removed from an inner, more tightly held shell (here the 2p subshell).
- This reasoning is a powerful tool for identifying unknown elements from ionisation-energy data.
Common Mistakes
- Miscounting the jump position: the jump between the nth and (n+1)th ionisation energy means there are n outer-shell electrons, not n+1.
- Using absolute differences instead of relative jumps: at high ionisation energies even a "small" step is a large absolute number; always compare the ratio or relative increase to find the true shell-change jump.
- Partially matching options: option D correctly places S and Cl for Y and Z but fails on X; each element must be checked independently.
Things to Be Careful About
- Identify the jump as the largest relative increase, not merely the largest absolute increase.
- Remember that Period 3 elements have their valence electrons in the third shell (3s, 3p); the jump signals entry into the 2p subshell.
- Work each element independently, then match the complete set to the options.
What contains oxygen atoms?
Options
A aluminium oxide
B sulfur dioxide
C sulfur trioxide
D water
Working
atoms is the number of particles in
So the species must contain 1.5 mol of oxygen atoms.
Check each option:
- A :
- B : ✓
- C :
- D :
Answer
B
B
Background Concept
The mole is the amount of substance that contains particles (the Avogadro constant, or ). The number of particles is related to the amount in moles by:
A key subtlety in this type of question is that "oxygen atoms" refers to individual atoms, not molecules. The number of oxygen atoms in a sample depends on how many oxygen atoms appear in each formula unit of the compound.
Understanding the Question
The question asks which given amount of a compound contains exactly oxygen atoms. This is a mole-conversion problem: first convert the given particle count into moles of oxygen atoms, then check which option produces that many oxygen atoms.
Approach
- Convert atoms into moles using the Avogadro constant.
- For each option, multiply the given moles of compound by the number of oxygen atoms per formula unit.
- Identify the option whose product equals the target moles of oxygen atoms.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Step 1 — Find the target amount of oxygen atoms.
So we need a sample containing 1.5 mol of oxygen atoms.
Step 2 — Check each option.
- A Aluminium oxide is , with 3 oxygen atoms per formula unit:
- B Sulfur dioxide is , with 2 oxygen atoms per molecule:
- C Sulfur trioxide is , with 3 oxygen atoms per molecule:
- D Water is , with 1 oxygen atom per molecule:
Only B gives exactly 1.5 mol of oxygen atoms.
Key Takeaways
- Always divide the number of particles by to get moles.
- Multiply the moles of compound by the number of atoms of interest per formula unit.
- The formula of the compound determines how many oxygen atoms each particle contributes.
Common Mistakes
- Confusing molecules with atoms: e.g. treating as contributing 1 oxygen atom instead of 2.
- Using the wrong formula: e.g. writing aluminium oxide as instead of .
- Forgetting to divide the particle count by before comparing.
Things to Be Careful About
- Check the subscript on oxygen in each formula carefully.
- Remember that is deliberately chosen as , so the arithmetic should come out cleanly.
- Read the question precisely: it asks for oxygen atoms, not oxygen molecules ().
Methane and steam react to produce hydrogen.
of methane and of steam react. One of the reactants is used up.
Which volume of hydrogen, measured at room conditions, will be produced?
Options
A
B
C
D
Working
Moles of methane:
Moles of steam:
From the equation, requires .
would require , but only is present, so steam is the limiting reagent.
Moles of hydrogen produced:
Volume at room conditions ():
Answer
B
B
Background Concept
This question tests the mole concept and stoichiometry. The amount of any substance in moles is found from its mass and molar mass:
A balanced chemical equation gives the mole ratio in which reactants combine and products form. When two reactants are supplied, one may be in excess and the other is the limiting reagent — the one that is completely used up. The limiting reagent determines the maximum amount of product that can form. Finally, the volume of a gas at room conditions (about 25 °C and 1 atm) is found using the molar gas volume of :
Understanding the Question
Methane and steam react according to the equation:
We are told that of methane and of steam react, and that one reactant is used up completely. We must find the volume of hydrogen produced at room conditions. The phrase "one of the reactants is used up" signals a limiting-reagent problem: we must decide which reactant runs out first and base the product amount on it.
Approach
- Convert each reactant mass to moles using its molar mass.
- Compare the available mole ratio with the required stoichiometric ratio () to identify the limiting reagent.
- Use the limiting reagent and the stoichiometric ratio to find the moles of hydrogen produced.
- Convert moles of hydrogen to volume using the molar gas volume at room conditions ().
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Step 1 — Moles of methane.
The molar mass of methane, , is .
Step 2 — Moles of steam.
The molar mass of water, , is .
Step 3 — Identify the limiting reagent.
The equation shows that of methane reacts with of steam. So of methane would need:
Only of steam is available, which is less than . Therefore steam is the limiting reagent and methane is in excess. All product amounts must be calculated from the steam.
Step 4 — Moles of hydrogen produced.
From the equation, of steam produces of hydrogen, i.e. a ratio. So:
Step 5 — Volume of hydrogen at room conditions.
Using the molar gas volume of :
This corresponds to option B.
Key Takeaways
- Always convert masses to moles before applying a stoichiometric ratio.
- In a limiting-reagent problem, calculate how much of each reactant is needed and identify which runs out first.
- The limiting reagent, not the excess reagent, controls the amount of product formed.
- At room conditions, one mole of any gas occupies .
Common Mistakes
- Using methane as the limiting reagent without checking: methane needs of steam, but only is present, so steam is limiting. Using methane would give of hydrogen and a volume of — option C, a common trap.
- Forgetting the stoichiometric ratio and assuming of steam gives of hydrogen. The ratio is , i.e. .
- Using the wrong molar gas volume: the question specifies room conditions, so applies, not (standard conditions) or .
Things to Be Careful About
- Check the units of mass carefully; here they are already in grams.
- Molar masses must be calculated correctly: , .
- In the final volume, keep the correct unit () and the correct number of significant figures consistent with the data given.
- The balanced equation must be read correctly: of steam produce of hydrogen, so the ratio is , not or .
Which statement explains why sodium and potassium have different melting points?
Options
A The attraction between cations and delocalised electrons is stronger in sodium.
B The attraction between cations and anions is stronger in sodium.
C The attraction between atoms is stronger in sodium.
D The attraction between nuclei and shared electron pairs is stronger in sodium.
Working
Sodium and potassium are metals held together by metallic bonding — a lattice of cations surrounded by a sea of delocalised electrons. The melting point depends on the strength of the attraction between the cations and the delocalised electrons. Sodium has a smaller atomic radius than potassium (fewer electron shells), so its delocalised outer electrons are held more tightly and the metallic bond is stronger. Hence sodium has the higher melting point.
Option B is incorrect because metallic bonding involves no anions. Option C is incorrect because metals are not held by bonds between atoms. Option D describes covalent bonding (shared electron pairs between nuclei), not metallic bonding.
Answer
A
A
Background Concept
Sodium and potassium are both Group 1 metals. In the metallic bonding model, each atom releases its outer (valence) electron into a shared pool, forming positive cations (Na⁺, K⁺) arranged in a lattice, surrounded by a mobile 'sea' of delocalised electrons. The metal is held together by the electrostatic attraction between these cations and the delocalised electrons. This attraction is what gives metals their strength, melting point, and electrical conductivity. The stronger the attraction, the more energy is needed to break the lattice apart, so the higher the melting point.
The strength of the metallic bond depends on two main factors: the charge on the cations and the size of the cations. For Group 1 metals, the charge is always +1, so the key difference is size. As you go down Group 1, atomic radius increases because each element has an additional electron shell. The larger the cation, the farther the delocalised electrons are from the nucleus, and the weaker the attraction. This explains why sodium (smaller cation) has a higher melting point than potassium (larger cation).
Understanding the Question
This is a multiple-choice question asking which statement correctly explains why sodium and potassium have different melting points. The question tests whether you understand (1) what type of bonding holds metals together, and (2) what factor determines the strength of that bond. Each option describes a different type of attraction, and you must identify which one correctly describes metallic bonding and correctly explains the difference between Na and K.
The command word is 'explain' — you need to identify the correct scientific reason, not just observe that they differ. The correct option must both describe the correct bonding model and correctly compare sodium and potassium.
Approach
- Recognise that Na and K are metals, so their melting points are governed by metallic bonding.
- Recall the metallic bonding model: cations + sea of delocalised electrons.
- Identify the factor that controls metallic bond strength: the attraction between cations and delocalised electrons.
- Compare Na and K: Na has a smaller atomic radius, so the delocalised electrons are closer to the nucleus and more strongly attracted — hence stronger metallic bond — hence higher melting point.
- Eliminate the other options by identifying what bonding model they actually describe.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Option A — Correct. 'The attraction between cations and delocalised electrons is stronger in sodium.' This correctly describes metallic bonding and correctly compares Na to K. Sodium has a smaller atomic radius (fewer electron shells), so its delocalised valence electrons are closer to the nucleus and more strongly attracted. The stronger metallic bond means more energy is needed to separate the ions, giving sodium a higher melting point (98°C) than potassium (63°C).
Option B — Incorrect. 'The attraction between cations and anions is stronger in sodium.' This describes ionic bonding, not metallic bonding. Metals do not contain anions — there are no negatively charged ions in a metal lattice. The delocalised electrons are not anions; they are mobile electrons.
Option C — Incorrect. 'The attraction between atoms is stronger in sodium.' This describes a molecular or covalent solid where discrete atoms are attracted to each other (e.g. by van der Waals forces). Metals are not held together by attractions between individual atoms; they are held by the attraction between cations and the delocalised electron sea.
Option D — Incorrect. 'The attraction between nuclei and shared electron pairs is stronger in sodium.' This describes covalent bonding, where two nuclei share a localised pair of electrons. In a metal, the electrons are not shared between specific pairs of atoms — they are delocalised across the entire lattice. This option confuses metallic bonding with covalent bonding.
Therefore, option A is the only statement that correctly describes metallic bonding and correctly explains the melting point difference.
Key Takeaways
- Metals are held together by metallic bonding: cations in a sea of delocalised electrons.
- The strength of the metallic bond depends on the charge of the cations and their size.
- Smaller cations → stronger attraction to delocalised electrons → higher melting point.
- Going down Group 1, atomic radius increases, metallic bond weakens, melting point decreases.
- Be able to distinguish between metallic, ionic, and covalent bonding descriptions.
Common Mistakes
- Choosing B — confusing metallic bonding with ionic bonding. Metals have no anions; the delocalised electrons are not anions.
- Choosing C — thinking of metals as atoms attracted to each other. Metals are not molecular; there are no discrete atoms bonded together.
- Choosing D — confusing metallic bonding with covalent bonding. In metals, electrons are delocalised, not shared between specific pairs of nuclei.
- Misidentifying the factor — thinking that more protons alone means stronger bonding, without considering atomic radius. Both Na and K have a +1 cation charge, so size is the deciding factor.
Things to Be Careful About
- Remember that the melting point is a macroscopic property that reflects the strength of the bonding — stronger bonds need more energy to break.
- In Group 1, the cation charge is the same (+1) for all elements, so the trend in metallic bond strength is determined by atomic/cation radius, not charge.
- Do not confuse 'delocalised electrons' with 'anions' — they are fundamentally different species.
- The term 'shared electron pairs' (option D) is a covalent bonding concept and should never be used to describe metallic bonding.
and react together to form , an ionic compound.
Which row states the number of coordinate bonds and the number of bonds in one formula unit of ?
Options
| number of coordinate bonds | number of bonds | |
|---|---|---|
| A | 0 | 2 |
| B | 1 | 2 |
| C | 0 | 3 |
| D | 1 | 3 |
Working
NH4CN is made of NH4+ and CN- ions.
In NH4+, three N-H bonds are ordinary covalent bonds and one N-H bond is a coordinate (dative) bond formed when the lone pair on NH3 is donated to H+.
So the number of coordinate bonds = 1.
In CN-, the carbon and nitrogen are joined by a triple bond, C≡N. A triple bond consists of one sigma bond and two pi bonds.
So the number of pi bonds = 2.
Answer
B
B
Background Concept
NH4CN is an ionic compound containing the ammonium ion, NH4+, and the cyanide ion, CN-. The ammonium ion is formed when ammonia, NH3, accepts a proton, H+. The cyanide ion has a carbon-nitrogen triple bond.
A coordinate (dative covalent) bond is a covalent bond in which both shared electrons come from one atom. In NH4+, the nitrogen atom already has a lone pair in NH3, and this lone pair is used to form the bond to H+.
A triple bond consists of one sigma bond and two pi bonds. A double bond consists of one sigma bond and one pi bond, and a single bond is one sigma bond.
Understanding the Question
The question asks for two separate counts in one formula unit of NH4CN:
- The number of coordinate bonds.
- The number of pi bonds.
The formula NH4CN must first be recognised as containing two separate ions: NH4+ and CN-. The bonds inside each ion must then be counted.
Approach
- Identify the ions present in NH4CN.
- Analyse the bonding in NH4+.
- Analyse the bonding in CN-.
- Add the counts for coordinate bonds and pi bonds.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
- NH4CN dissociates into NH4+ and CN-.
- In NH4+, nitrogen forms four N-H bonds. Three of these come from the three unpaired electrons of nitrogen combining with three hydrogen atoms. The fourth bond is formed using nitrogen's lone pair, so it is a coordinate bond.
- Coordinate bonds in NH4+ = 1.
- In CN-, carbon and nitrogen share three pairs of electrons, forming a triple bond.
- A triple bond has one sigma bond and two pi bonds.
- Pi bonds in CN- = 2.
- Total coordinate bonds = 1; total pi bonds = 2.
This matches option B.
Key Takeaways
- NH4+ always contains one coordinate bond because NH3 donates its lone pair to H+.
- A triple bond always contributes two pi bonds.
- When counting bonds in an ionic compound, first identify the ions present, then analyse the bonding within each ion.
Common Mistakes
- Counting all four N-H bonds in NH4+ as ordinary covalent bonds, forgetting that one is dative.
- Counting the C≡N triple bond as three pi bonds instead of one sigma and two pi bonds.
- Treating NH4CN as a molecule with direct N-C bonding rather than as separate NH4+ and CN- ions.
Things to Be Careful About
- The word "coordinate" means the same as "dative covalent".
- A coordinate bond is still a covalent bond; it is counted separately only because both electrons come from one atom.
- The pi bond count depends on the bond order: single = 0 pi, double = 1 pi, triple = 2 pi.
When of ethanoic acid, , in aqueous solution is neutralised by an excess of aqueous sodium hydroxide, of energy is released.
Which statement about this reaction is correct?
Options
A The reaction is exothermic because only bond breaking takes place.
B The reaction is exothermic because only bond forming takes place.
C The reaction is exothermic because more energy is given out in breaking bonds than is taken in to form bonds.
D The reaction is exothermic because more energy is given out in forming bonds than is taken in to break bonds.
Working
An exothermic reaction has a negative enthalpy change: the energy released in forming new bonds is greater than the energy absorbed in breaking old bonds.
Bond breaking is endothermic; bond forming is exothermic. Therefore the correct statement is the one that says more energy is given out in forming bonds than is taken in to break bonds.
Answer
D
D
Background Concept
In any chemical reaction, bonds in the reactants must first be broken and new bonds must then be formed in the products. Bond breaking requires energy input, so it is endothermic. Bond forming releases energy, so it is exothermic. Whether the overall reaction is exothermic or endothermic depends on the balance between these two energy changes:
If more energy is released in forming bonds than is absorbed in breaking bonds, the reaction is exothermic and is negative. If more energy is absorbed in breaking bonds than is released in forming bonds, the reaction is endothermic and is positive.
Understanding the Question
The question describes the neutralisation of ethanoic acid with an excess of aqueous sodium hydroxide, releasing of energy. It asks which statement correctly explains why this reaction is exothermic. The question is not asking for the enthalpy value itself; it is testing the general principle of why reactions release energy in terms of bond breaking and bond forming.
Approach
The key is to recall two facts:
- Breaking bonds always absorbs energy.
- Forming bonds always releases energy.
Then decide which energy change must be larger for the overall process to release energy. The exothermic condition is that the energy released on forming product bonds exceeds the energy needed to break reactant bonds. Apply this to each option and select the one that states, in the correct order, that bond forming releases more energy than bond breaking absorbs.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
- Bond breaking: energy is taken in. So it can never be described as giving out energy.
- Bond forming: energy is given out. So an exothermic reaction must involve more energy given out in bond forming than taken in in bond breaking.
Now examine the options:
- A: It says only bond breaking takes place. This is chemically wrong: products must form bonds too, and bond breaking alone would absorb energy, not release it.
- B: It says only bond forming takes place. This is also incomplete: reactant bonds must be broken before new bonds can form.
- C: It says more energy is given out in breaking bonds than is taken in to form bonds. This reverses the endothermic/exothermic nature of both processes. Bond breaking does not give out energy, so this is incorrect.
- D: It says more energy is given out in forming bonds than is taken in to break bonds. This is the correct statement: bond forming releases energy, and if this release is greater than the energy absorbed in breaking bonds, the overall reaction is exothermic.
In the neutralisation reaction, new bonds such as O–H bonds in water are formed, and this energy release outweighs the energy needed to break the existing bonds in the acid, base, and water.
Key Takeaways
- Bond breaking is endothermic; bond forming is exothermic.
- A reaction is exothermic when the energy released in forming new bonds is greater than the energy absorbed in breaking old bonds.
- A reaction is endothermic when the energy absorbed in breaking old bonds is greater than the energy released in forming new bonds.
- When reading options that compare energy changes, pay attention to the direction: breaking bonds takes energy in, forming bonds gives energy out.
Common Mistakes
- Choosing C because it sounds like a plausible energy comparison, but it reverses the roles of bond breaking and bond forming.
- Assuming that bond breaking can release energy because an overall reaction is exothermic. Bond breaking always requires energy; the exothermicity comes from bond forming.
- Thinking that only bond forming matters, or only bond breaking matters. Both must be considered; the sign of is determined by their relative sizes.
Things to Be Careful About
- The phrase “given out” must be paired with bond forming, and “taken in” must be paired with bond breaking.
- The enthalpy change of neutralisation is negative, so the reaction is exothermic. The magnitude, , is not used to choose the option, but it confirms that neutralisation is an exothermic process.
- Make sure the comparison in the answer is between “energy released in forming bonds” and “energy absorbed in breaking bonds”, not the reverse.
In an experiment, of a fuel is burnt. of the energy released is absorbed by of water. The temperature of the water rises from to .
What is the total energy released per gram of fuel burnt?
Options
A
B
C
D
Working
Energy absorbed by water (using ):
This is 45.0% of the total energy released:
Energy released per gram of fuel:
Answer
B (55,700 J)
B
Background Concept
When a fuel burns, the chemical energy stored in its bonds is released as heat. In a simple calorimetry experiment the heat released is transferred to a known mass of water, and the temperature rise of the water is measured. The heat gained by the water is given by
where is the mass of water, is its specific heat capacity ( for water) and is the temperature rise. The experiment is not perfectly efficient: only 45.0% of the energy released by the fuel is absorbed by the water. Therefore the measured is only 45.0% of the total energy released. The question also asks for the energy per gram of fuel, so after finding the total energy we divide by the mass of fuel burnt.
Understanding the Question
This is a one-mark multiple-choice question about calorimetry and energy efficiency. The stem gives:
- mass of fuel =
- mass of water =
- temperature rise from to
- only 45.0% of the energy released is absorbed by the water.
The command is a calculation: find the total energy released per gram of fuel burnt. We must not stop at the energy absorbed by the water, nor at the total energy released; we must also divide by the mass of fuel.
Approach
- Calculate the heat absorbed by the water using .
- Recognise that this heat is 45.0% of the total energy released, so divide by 0.450 to obtain the total energy released by the fuel.
- Divide the total energy by the mass of fuel () to obtain the energy released per gram.
- Compare with the options.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
First find the temperature rise:
Then calculate the heat absorbed by the water:
This is the energy that actually warmed the water. Since this is 45.0% of the total energy released by the fuel:
Finally, express this per gram of fuel:
So the correct option is B.
Why the other options are wrong:
- A, , is the heat absorbed by the water divided by the mass of fuel, i.e. it uses the absorbed energy instead of the total energy.
- C, , is the total energy released by the whole sample, but the question asks for the energy per gram.
- D, , comes from incorrectly multiplying the total energy by 1.60 (or otherwise mishandling the percentage/mass conversion).
Key Takeaways
- The heat gained by water in a calorimetry experiment is .
- A percentage efficiency means the measured heat is a fraction of the total energy released; to recover the total, divide by the fraction as a decimal.
- Always check the final unit requested: here "per gram" requires dividing by the mass of fuel.
- A temperature difference has the same numerical value in kelvin and in degrees Celsius.
Common Mistakes
- Choosing C because it is the total energy released by the whole sample, not the energy per gram.
- Choosing A because the absorbed energy is divided by 1.60 before converting to total energy.
- Choosing D because the total energy is multiplied by 1.60 or the percentage is applied incorrectly.
- Using 45 instead of 0.450 in the division, or multiplying by 0.45 instead of dividing by it.
- Forgetting that is a difference, so using or alone is wrong.
Things to Be Careful About
- Use for water unless another value is given.
- Convert 45.0% to 0.450 before using it in a calculation.
- Keep track of units: the final answer is in , not just J.
- The temperature difference in kelvin is numerically equal to the difference in degrees Celsius, so no extra conversion is needed for .
- Read the question wording carefully: "per gram of fuel" means the total energy must be divided by 1.60 g.
Sulfite ions, , react separately with zinc and with manganese dioxide.
, , , , , , and are all whole numbers.
Which numbers are correct for , , and ?
Options
| A | 1 | 2 | 2 | 4 |
| B | 2 | 2 | 2 | 4 |
| C | 1 | 2 | 4 | 2 |
| D | 2 | 2 | 4 | 2 |
Working
For the first equation, S in is +4; in it is +3, so each S is reduced by 1 e. Zn is oxidised from 0 to +2, losing 2 e. One needs 2 e, so one Zn supplies them. Balancing in alkaline conditions:
Adding:
so , .
For the second equation, Mn in is +4 and is reduced to +2, gaining 2 e; S in is +4 and in is +5, so two lose 2 e. Balancing in acid:
Adding:
so , .
Answer
B
B
Background Concept
Redox reactions involve electron transfer. To balance a redox equation, split it into oxidation and reduction half-equations. First assign oxidation numbers to every element. Oxidation number is the charge an atom would have if the electrons in each bond were assigned to the more electronegative atom; in an ion, the sum of the oxidation numbers equals the charge on the ion.
In this question:
- S in : O is , three O give , ion charge is , so S is .
- S in : four O give , ion charge , so two S total , each S is .
- S in : six O give , ion charge , so two S total , each S is .
- Zn metal is 0; is .
- Mn in is ; is .
Once the oxidation number changes are known, write half-equations. Balance atoms other than O and H, then balance O and H using the species appropriate to the medium: in acid use and ; in alkaline solution use and . Add electrons to balance charge, then multiply half-equations so that electrons cancel.
Understanding the Question
The question gives two skeleton equations with unknown whole-number coefficients. The first is the reduction of sulfite ions by zinc metal, producing hydroxide ions, so it is balanced in alkaline conditions. The second is the oxidation of sulfite ions by manganese dioxide in acidic conditions, with as a reactant. You are asked for the coefficients , , and . The four options give different combinations, so the task is to balance both equations fully.
Approach
For each equation, identify which element is oxidised and which is reduced. Then write the two half-equations, balance atoms and charge, equalise the number of electrons, and add the half-equations. Finally read off the required coefficients.
For the first equation, Zn is oxidised and S in sulfite is reduced. For the second, Mn is reduced and S in sulfite is oxidised. In both cases the sulfur product contains two sulfur atoms, so two sulfite ions are needed for each product ion.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
First equation
Oxidation half-equation:
Reduction half-equation, in alkaline conditions:
Check the reduction half-equation:
- S: 2 on each side.
- O: on the left; on the right.
- H: 4 on each side.
- Charge: left ; right .
Adding the two half-equations cancels the electrons:
So , , , . This eliminates options A and C, which have .
Second equation
Reduction half-equation, in acid:
Check: Mn 1 = 1; O 2 = 2; H 4 = 4; charge on the left and on the right.
Oxidation half-equation:
Check: S 2 = 2; O 6 = 6; charge .
Adding:
So , , , .
Therefore the correct option is B: , , , .
Key Takeaways
- Oxidation number changes identify which species is oxidised and which is reduced.
- Half-equations must balance both atoms and charge.
- The medium matters: use and in acid, and and in alkali.
- The coefficients in a redox equation come from the electron balance, not from trial and error.
Common Mistakes
- Forgetting that and each contain two sulfur atoms, so two sulfite ions are needed per product ion.
- Using in the first equation, which is alkaline; the correct species is .
- Balancing oxygen with water but forgetting to balance hydrogen afterwards.
- Not checking that charge is balanced in each half-equation.
- Choosing coefficients by inspection instead of using half-equations.
Things to Be Careful About
- The oxidation number of S is in , in , and in .
- In acidic half-equations, add and ; in alkaline half-equations, add and .
- Electrons must cancel exactly when the half-equations are added.
- State symbols and ionic charges are part of a correctly balanced equation.
- The correct option is B: , , , .
Which equation shows hydrogen acting as an oxidising agent?
Options
A
B
C
D
Working
For hydrogen to act as an oxidising agent, it must be reduced — its oxidation number must decrease from 0.
A: Hydrogen: (gains electrons, reduced). Potassium: (oxidised). Hydrogen is the oxidising agent.
B: Hydrogen: (oxidised) — hydrogen is the reducing agent.
C: Hydrogen: (oxidised) — hydrogen is the reducing agent.
D: Hydrogen: (oxidised) — hydrogen is the reducing agent.
Answer
A
A
Background Concept
An oxidising agent is a substance that oxidises another species, meaning it causes another species to lose electrons. In doing so, the oxidising agent itself gains electrons and is reduced. Conversely, a reducing agent causes another species to gain electrons and is itself oxidised.
The key tool for identifying redox behaviour is the oxidation number (oxidation state). For an element in its elemental form, the oxidation number is 0. For hydrogen in most compounds, it is +1, but in metal hydrides (like KH, NaH), hydrogen is -1 because the metal is more electropositive (less electronegative) than hydrogen.
To identify whether hydrogen acts as an oxidising agent, we track its oxidation number: if it decreases from 0 to -1, hydrogen is reduced and acts as an oxidising agent; if it increases from 0 to +1, hydrogen is oxidised and acts as a reducing agent.
Understanding the Question
The question presents four chemical equations and asks us to identify the one in which hydrogen acts as an oxidising agent. This requires us to determine, for each reaction, whether hydrogen is reduced (gaining electrons) or oxidised (losing electrons). The correct option is the one where hydrogen's oxidation number decreases.
Approach
- Assign oxidation numbers to hydrogen in the reactants and products of each equation.
- Determine whether hydrogen's oxidation number increases (oxidised → reducing agent) or decreases (reduced → oxidising agent).
- Select the equation where hydrogen is reduced.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Let's go through each option:
Option A:
- In , hydrogen has oxidation number 0.
- In , hydrogen has oxidation number -1 (potassium is a metal, more electropositive than hydrogen, so hydrogen takes the negative oxidation state as hydride, H^-).
- Hydrogen goes from 0 to -1: it gains an electron, so it is reduced. Potassium goes from 0 to +1: it loses an electron, so it is oxidised.
- Since hydrogen is reduced, it acts as the oxidising agent. ✓
Option B:
- In , hydrogen has oxidation number 0.
- In , hydrogen has oxidation number +1 (iodine is more electronegative than hydrogen).
- Hydrogen goes from 0 to +1: it loses an electron, so it is oxidised. Iodine goes from 0 to -1: it gains electrons, so it is reduced.
- Hydrogen is oxidised, so it acts as the reducing agent, not the oxidising agent. ✗
Option C:
- In , hydrogen has oxidation number 0.
- In , hydrogen has oxidation number +1.
- Hydrogen goes from 0 to +1: it is oxidised, so it acts as the reducing agent. ✗
- (Copper in Cu2S: S is -2, so Cu is +1; in elemental Cu, it's 0 — copper is reduced.)
Option D:
- In , hydrogen has oxidation number 0.
- In , hydrogen has oxidation number +1 (nitrogen is more electronegative than hydrogen).
- Hydrogen goes from 0 to +1: it is oxidised, so it acts as the reducing agent. ✗
Therefore, only option A shows hydrogen acting as an oxidising agent.
Key Takeaways
- An oxidising agent is itself reduced (gains electrons, oxidation number decreases).
- A reducing agent is itself oxidised (loses electrons, oxidation number increases).
- Hydrogen's oxidation number is 0 in the elemental form, +1 in most compounds, and -1 in metal hydrides.
- To determine whether a species acts as an oxidising or reducing agent, track its oxidation number change.
Common Mistakes
- Confusing oxidising and reducing agents: an oxidising agent is reduced, not oxidised.
- Forgetting that hydrogen can have oxidation number -1 in metal hydrides. In KH, hydrogen is -1, not +1.
- Assuming hydrogen always has oxidation number +1 in compounds — this is true for most compounds but not for metal hydrides.
Things to Be Careful About
- Always assign oxidation numbers carefully, considering electronegativity. In KH (a metal hydride), the metal is less electronegative than hydrogen, so hydrogen carries the negative oxidation state.
- Remember that the oxidising agent is the species that is reduced (gains electrons), and the reducing agent is the species that is oxidised (loses electrons).
- In option C, note that hydrogen is oxidised, so hydrogen acts as the reducing agent, and copper is reduced, so Cu2S (or more precisely, Cu+ in Cu2S) acts as the oxidising agent.
of nitrogen gas is stored in a vessel at .
What is the pressure in the vessel?
Options
A
B
C
D
Working
Molar mass of nitrogen, , is .
Convert volume to and temperature to kelvin:
Apply :
Answer
C ()
C
Background Concept
The ideal gas equation, , links the pressure, volume, amount and temperature of an ideal gas. Here is pressure in Pa, is volume in , is amount in mol, is temperature in K, and . Nitrogen exists as diatomic molecules, , so its molar mass is .
Understanding the Question
This is a one-mark multiple-choice question asking for the pressure exerted by a known mass of nitrogen in a fixed volume at a given temperature. The data are given in convenient laboratory units: grams, and Celsius. To use the ideal gas equation directly, all quantities must be in SI base units: moles, and kelvin.
Approach
- Convert the mass of nitrogen into moles using .
- Convert the volume from to .
- Convert the temperature from Celsius to kelvin.
- Rearrange to and substitute.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Moles of nitrogen.
Using is essential because nitrogen gas is , not N.
Volume in SI units.
so
Temperature in kelvin.
Pressure.
The numerator is about (since ), and dividing by gives
This matches option C.
Option D is double this value, which is what you get if you use (atomic nitrogen) instead of . Option A is close to the result obtained by using instead of . Option B is an arithmetic or unit slip. The correct answer is therefore C.
Key Takeaways
- Always use SI units in : pressure in Pa, volume in , temperature in K.
- Remember common gases such as , , and are diatomic; their molar mass is twice the atomic mass.
- A quick magnitude check helps: about 0.036 mol of gas at 313 K in 2 L gives a pressure of tens of thousands of Pa, not thousands.
Common Mistakes
- Using for nitrogen instead of , giving option D.
- Leaving the temperature in Celsius, giving a much smaller pressure (option A).
- Forgetting to convert to ; this makes the calculated pressure 1000 times too large.
- Mixing up units of ; only works with Pa, , mol and K.
Things to Be Careful About
- , not .
- Add 273.15 (or at least 273) to Celsius temperatures; never use the Celsius value directly.
- Give the final answer to three significant figures, matching the data.
- The unit is Pa; if you accidentally work in kPa, the numerical value would be 46.4, not 46400.
One molecule of haemoglobin, , can bind with four molecules of oxygen according to the equation shown.
When the equilibrium concentration of is , the equilibrium concentrations of and are equal.
What is the numerical value of for this equilibrium?
Options
A
B
C
D
Working
The equilibrium expression is
Since , these concentrations cancel:
Answer
A
A
Background Concept
For a reversible reaction , the equilibrium constant in terms of concentrations is
at a fixed temperature. Each concentration is raised to the power of its stoichiometric coefficient in the balanced equation. Here, the coefficient 4 in front of means appears raised to the fourth power — a very common trap. Since is small, is astronomically smaller (about ), so becomes very large, telling us this equilibrium strongly favours the bound form .
Understanding the Question
The stem gives the equilibrium and states that at equilibrium and that . The task is to find the numerical value of . The equal concentrations are deliberately provided so that they cancel from the expression — the answer depends only on the oxygen concentration. Recognising this cancellation is the heart of the question.
Approach
Write the expression; replace the two equal concentrations with the same symbol and cancel; substitute the given ; compute the fourth power and take the reciprocal; compare with the options. As a sanity check, because the product is strongly favoured at these tiny concentrations, should be far greater than 1 — only option A satisfies this.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
- Write the expression.
- Cancel the equal concentrations. Let . Then
- Substitute the oxygen concentration.
- Evaluate the fourth power.
- Take the reciprocal.
This matches option A.
Now the distractors: option B, , is — what you get by forgetting the fourth power. Option C, , is just the given itself. Option D, , is precisely — the denominator that must be inverted, not quoted as .
Key Takeaways
- Stoichiometric coefficients become exponents in expressions — the 4 in front of means , not .
- Where two concentrations are stated to be equal, they cancel from a ratio — use that before substituting numbers.
- Magnitude checks are powerful: a tiny reactant concentration raised to a power gives an enormous when products are favoured.
- Always compare your computed value with the options to catch arithmetic slips.
Common Mistakes
- Forgetting the fourth power: using gives (option B).
- Quoting the fourth-power value itself, (option D), instead of its reciprocal.
- Misidentifying which species belong in the numerator and denominator of (products over reactants).
- Units of : this reaction has , so the units would be ; the question asks only the numerical value, so no units are needed.
Things to Be Careful About
- The fourth power applies to the whole quantity: , i.e. both the mantissa and the power of ten.
- Orders of magnitude: dividing 1 by gives about , not .
- Give the answer in the same number of significant figures as the data (2 s.f.).
- Don't be tempted by option C, which just repeats a given value; always form the expression first.
Aqueous acid P and aqueous alkali Q have the same concentration.
of P is added to a conical flask.
Q is slowly added to the flask and the volume of Q and the pH are recorded.
The pH titration curve is shown.
Which row gives the identity of P and Q?
Options
| P | Q | |
|---|---|---|
| A | ||
| B | ||
| C | ||
| D |
Working
The titration curve starts at pH 1, indicating a strong acid (P). It ends at pH ~13, indicating a strong alkali (Q) that produces a high concentration of OH⁻ ions. The equivalence point (pH 7) occurs at 10 cm³ of Q added to 20 cm³ of P. Since the molar concentrations of P and Q are equal, the volume of Q required is half that of P. This means each formula unit of Q provides twice as many OH⁻ ions as P provides H⁺ ions. Ba(OH)₂ is a diprotic strong base (providing 2 OH⁻ per formula unit), and HCl is a monoprotic strong acid.
- Option A (HCl, NaOH): Both are monoprotic. Equivalence would occur at 20 cm³. Incorrect.
- Option B (H₂SO₄, NH₃): NH₃ is a weak base; final pH would not reach 13, and equivalence pH would be < 7. Incorrect.
- Option C (HCl, Ba(OH)₂): Strong acid and diprotic strong base. Equivalence at 10 cm³, pH jump from ~2 to ~12, equivalence at pH 7. Correct.
- Option D (CH₃COOH, Sr(OH)₂): CH₃COOH is a weak acid; initial pH would be > 1 (around 3). Incorrect.
Answer
C
C
Background Concept
A pH titration curve plots the pH of the solution in the flask against the volume of titrant added. The shape of the curve reveals the strengths of the acid and base, as well as their stoichiometry.
- Strong acid + strong base: The curve starts at a low pH (e.g., pH 1 for 0.1 mol dm⁻³ HCl), has a very sharp vertical jump at the equivalence point (spanning roughly pH 4 to 10), and the equivalence point is exactly at pH 7. The final pH approaches the pH of the excess strong base.
- Weak acid or weak base: The initial pH is higher (for a weak acid) or the final pH is lower (for a weak base), and the vertical jump at the equivalence point is shorter and shifted away from pH 7.
- Stoichiometry: The volume of titrant required to reach the equivalence point depends on the moles of H⁺ and OH⁻. If is the volume of acid and is the volume of base at equivalence, and their molar concentrations are both , then , where and are the number of H⁺ and OH⁻ ions per formula unit, respectively.
Understanding the Question
We are given a pH titration curve where 20 cm³ of acid P is titrated with alkali Q. Both have the same molar concentration. We need to identify P and Q from the four options based on the starting pH, ending pH, equivalence point volume, and the pH at equivalence.
Approach
- Analyze the initial pH to determine if P is a strong or weak acid.
- Analyze the final pH to determine if Q is a strong or weak base.
- Locate the equivalence point (steepest part of the curve, passing through pH 7) to determine the stoichiometric ratio of H⁺ to OH⁻.
- Match these observations with the properties of the given options.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
- Initial pH: The curve starts at pH 1. For a 0.1 mol dm⁻³ solution, pH 1 corresponds to a strong monoprotic acid like HCl. A weak acid like CH₃COOH at the same concentration would have a higher initial pH (around 3). This eliminates option D (CH₃COOH).
- Final pH: The curve levels off at pH ~13. For a 0.1 mol dm⁻³ solution of Ba(OH)₂, the [OH⁻] is 0.2 mol dm⁻³, giving pOH = 0.7 and pH = 13.3. A weak base like NH₃ would not reach such a high final pH. This eliminates option B (NH₃).
- Equivalence point volume: The sharp rise in pH occurs around 10 cm³ of Q added, and the curve passes through pH 7 at exactly 10 cm³. We started with 20 cm³ of P. Since the molar concentrations of P and Q are equal, the volume of Q required is half that of P. This means each formula unit of Q provides twice as many OH⁻ ions as P provides H⁺ ions. Ba(OH)₂ is a diprotic strong base (providing 2 OH⁻ per formula unit), and HCl is a monoprotic strong acid. This matches option C.
- Checking Option A: If P were HCl and Q were NaOH, both would be monoprotic. The equivalence point would occur when equal volumes are mixed, i.e., at 20 cm³ of Q. The graph shows equivalence at 10 cm³, so A is incorrect.
Key Takeaways
- The initial and final pH values on a titration curve indicate the relative strengths of the acid and base.
- The volume at the equivalence point reveals the stoichiometric ratio of H⁺ to OH⁻, allowing you to deduce whether the acid or base is monoprotic, diprotic, etc.
- Strong acid-strong base titrations have an equivalence point exactly at pH 7 with a large vertical jump.
Common Mistakes
- Ignoring stoichiometry: Assuming the equivalence point is always at the same volume as the acid (20 cm³) without considering that a diprotic base like Ba(OH)₂ will neutralize the acid in half the volume.
- Confusing weak and strong indicators: Noting that NH₃ is a base but forgetting it is weak, which would result in a final pH well below 13 and an equivalence point below pH 7.
- Misreading the graph: Reading the equivalence point volume incorrectly (e.g., reading 20 cm³ instead of 10 cm³).
Things to Be Careful About
- Ensure you are reading the volume of titrant (Q) added on the x-axis, not the volume remaining in the flask.
- Remember that Ba(OH)₂ and Sr(OH)₂ are diprotic bases, providing 2 moles of OH⁻ per mole of base, which halves the volume of base needed compared to a monoprotic base like NaOH at the same concentration.
- State symbols and exact pH values are not required for this MCQ, but understanding the approximate values (pH 1 for 0.1 M strong acid, pH 13.3 for 0.1 M diprotic strong base) is crucial for elimination.
Photochromic glass, used for sunglasses, darkens when exposed to bright light and becomes more transparent again when the light is less bright. The darkness of the glass is due to the presence of silver atoms.
The following reactions are involved.
Which statement about these reactions is correct?
Options
A and ions act as catalysts.
B ions act as an oxidising agent in reaction 2.
C Reaction 3 increases the darkness of the glass.
D Silver atoms are reduced in reaction 3.
Working
In reaction 1, gains an electron to form (reduction) and loses an electron to form (oxidation).
In reaction 2, is oxidised to , so is the reducing agent, not an oxidising agent. This rules out B.
In reaction 3, is oxidised to , so silver atoms are oxidised, not reduced. This rules out D. Reaction 3 removes atoms, so it decreases the darkness, ruling out C.
is used up in reaction 2 and regenerated in reaction 3; is used up in reaction 3 and regenerated in reaction 2. Neither is consumed overall, so both act as catalysts.
Answer
A
A
Background Concept
Redox reactions involve electron transfer. Oxidation is loss of electrons (increase in oxidation number); reduction is gain of electrons (decrease in oxidation number). The species that is oxidised is the reducing agent; the species that is reduced is the oxidising agent. A catalyst speeds up a reaction by providing an alternative pathway of lower activation energy; it takes part in the reaction but is regenerated, so it is not used up overall. In this question, a catalyst may be oxidised in one step and reduced again in another, as long as it returns to its original form.
Understanding the Question
The question describes photochromic glass that darkens when atoms are present. Three reactions are given. We must decide which statement is correct. The options involve redox roles of and the effect of reaction 3 on darkness. We need to evaluate each statement using oxidation numbers and electron transfer.
Approach
For each reaction, identify oxidation number changes. Determine which species is oxidised or reduced, hence which is the oxidising or reducing agent. Then track and through reactions 2 and 3 to see if they are regenerated. Finally compare the options.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Reaction 1: . goes from +1 to 0, so it gains an electron and is reduced; goes from -1 to 0, so it loses an electron and is oxidised. The forward reaction produces atoms, which darken the glass.
Reaction 2: . goes from +1 to +2, so it is oxidised; goes from 0 to -1, so it is reduced. Therefore is the reducing agent, not an oxidising agent. This makes option B false.
Reaction 3: . goes from +2 to +1, so it is reduced; goes from 0 to +1, so it is oxidised. Therefore silver atoms are oxidised, not reduced, making option D false. Since atoms are converted into ions, reaction 3 removes the species that causes darkness, so it makes the glass less dark, not more dark. This makes option C false.
Catalyst cycle: Reaction 2 consumes and produces . Reaction 3 consumes and produces . Therefore is regenerated exactly as it is consumed, and is also regenerated. The pair is not consumed overall; it provides a pathway and is restored. This makes option A correct.
Key Takeaways
- Oxidation number changes identify redox reactions.
- The oxidising agent is reduced; the reducing agent is oxidised.
- A catalyst participates in reactions but is regenerated overall; it can be oxidised in one step and reduced in another.
- In photochromic glass, atoms cause darkness, so any reaction that removes atoms lightens the glass.
Common Mistakes
- Calling an oxidising agent in reaction 2: it loses electrons, so it is oxidised and is the reducing agent.
- Saying silver atoms are reduced in reaction 3: goes from 0 to +1, so it is oxidised.
- Thinking reaction 3 darkens the glass: it consumes atoms, so it lightens the glass.
- Thinking catalysts are inert: they do take part in elementary steps but are regenerated overall.
Things to Be Careful About
- Use oxidation numbers, not intuition, to assign oxidising and reducing agents.
- Track each species across all reactions before deciding whether it is a catalyst.
- Option A says and act as catalysts as a pair; together they are regenerated. One ion alone is not the catalyst.
- In an MCQ, eliminate false statements by explicit electron-transfer reasoning.
The reversible reaction between methanol and ethanoic acid liquids is catalysed by adding a small volume of concentrated sulfuric acid.
Two statements about this reaction are listed.
- The sulfuric acid is a homogeneous catalyst.
- The sulfuric acid lowers the activation energy of the reverse reaction.
Which statements are correct?
Options
A both 1 and 2
B 1 only
C 2 only
D neither 1 nor 2
Working
Methanol and ethanoic acid are both liquids; concentrated sulfuric acid is also a liquid and mixes with them, so all species are in the same phase — the sulfuric acid is a homogeneous catalyst. (1 is correct.)
A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway of lower activation energy. For a reversible reaction this applies to both the forward and the reverse reactions, so the sulfuric acid lowers the activation energy of the reverse reaction. (2 is correct.)
Both statements are correct.
Answer
A
A
Background Concept
A catalyst is a substance that increases the rate of a reaction without being used up, by providing an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy (). The catalyst is classified by its phase relative to the reactants:
- A homogeneous catalyst is in the same phase as the reactants (here, all liquids).
- A heterogeneous catalyst is in a different phase from the reactants (typically a solid catalyst with liquid or gaseous reactants).
For a reversible reaction, the same catalyst lowers the activation energy of the forward and the reverse reactions. This is because the alternative pathway links the reactants to the products, and the activation barrier must be reduced in both directions (the forward and reverse barriers differ by the enthalpy change, but a lower-energy pathway reduces both). The catalyst therefore speeds up the attainment of equilibrium without changing the position of the equilibrium.
The reaction in this question is the esterification of methanol with ethanoic acid, catalysed by concentrated sulfuric acid:
Understanding the Question
This is a multiple-choice question asking you to judge two statements about the sulfuric acid catalyst in the esterification reaction between liquid methanol and liquid ethanoic acid. The statements are:
- The sulfuric acid is a homogeneous catalyst.
- The sulfuric acid lowers the activation energy of the reverse reaction.
The correct option is the one that correctly identifies which statement(s) are true. The key facts to recall are the definition of a homogeneous catalyst and the effect of a catalyst on a reversible reaction.
Approach
Assess each statement separately:
- Statement 1: Compare the phase of the reactants with the phase of the catalyst. If they are the same, the catalyst is homogeneous.
- Statement 2: Recall that a catalyst lowers the activation energy of both the forward and reverse reactions in a reversible reaction, not just the forward reaction.
Then combine the two judgements to select the correct option letter.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Statement 1 — homogeneous catalyst?
Methanol is a liquid and ethanoic acid is a liquid. Concentrated sulfuric acid is a thick liquid that mixes with, and dissolves in, the organic acids, so all of the reacting mixture exists in a single liquid phase. A catalyst in the same phase as the reactants is a homogeneous catalyst. So statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2 — lowering the activation energy of the reverse reaction?
A catalyst works by offering an alternative pathway of lower activation energy. In a reversible reaction, the products are converted back into reactants along the reverse pathway, and the catalyst provides a lower-energy route for that reverse step too. The activation energy of the reverse reaction is therefore lowered, just as the forward activation energy is. So statement 2 is correct.
Since both statements are correct, the answer is A.
Why the distractors fail:
- B (1 only) and C (2 only) each correctly identify one statement but wrongly reject the other.
- D (neither) rejects both statements, which is wrong because both are true.
Key Takeaways
- A catalyst is homogeneous when it is in the same phase as the reactants (here, a liquid catalyst with liquid reactants).
- A catalyst lowers the activation energy of both the forward and reverse reactions of a reversible process.
- A catalyst never changes the position of equilibrium or the enthalpy change of the reaction — it only helps the system reach equilibrium faster.
Common Mistakes
- Thinking a catalyst only affects the forward reaction. Since the lower-energy alternative pathway connects reactants and products, the activation energies in both directions are reduced.
- Confusing homogeneous and heterogeneous. Some students pick "heterogeneous" because they picture sulfuric acid as "separate" or "inorganic". The classification depends only on phase, not on chemical identity.
- Believing a catalyst changes the yield or the equilibrium position. A catalyst speeds up both directions equally, so the equilibrium mixture is unchanged.
Things to Be Careful About
- Note carefully the physical states: methanol and ethanoic acid are given as liquids, and concentrated sulfuric acid is a liquid — this makes the catalyst homogeneous. If the catalyst were a solid (e.g. some esterification setups use an ion-exchange resin), the answer would differ.
- Read "concentrated sulfuric acid" as a liquid catalyst here; do not confuse it with its role as a dehydrating agent in other contexts.
- The question asks about the reverse reaction activation energy, not just the forward one — recall the symmetric effect of a catalyst on reversible reactions.
The atomic radii and ionic radii for three elements in Period 3 are shown.
| atomic radius / nm | ionic radius / nm | |
|---|---|---|
| element X | 0.118 | 0.053 |
| element Y | 0.099 | 0.180 |
| element Z | 0.160 | 0.072 |
Using this data, which statement is correct?
Options
A Element X has lower electrical conductivity than element Y.
B Element Y has a higher melting point than element X.
C Element Y and element Z react to form an ionic compound.
D Element Z forms ionic compounds by gaining electrons.
Working
Using the radii:
- : atomic radius 0.160 nm, ionic radius 0.072 nm — a metal cation, so .
- : atomic radius 0.099 nm, ionic radius 0.180 nm — a non-metal anion, so .
- : atomic radius 0.118 nm, ionic radius 0.053 nm — a small cation, so .
A: Si is a semiconductor, so it conducts better than , not lower. False.
B: is simple molecular with a low melting point; Si has a giant covalent structure with a high melting point. False.
C: , an ionic compound. True.
D: Mg loses electrons to form , it does not gain electrons. False.
Answer
C
C
Background Concept
Across Period 3, from Na to Cl, the atomic radius decreases because each successive element adds a proton to the nucleus while the new electron enters the same third shell. The increased nuclear charge pulls the outer shell closer to the nucleus. This trend lets us identify unknown Period 3 elements from their atomic radii.
When atoms form ions, the size changes in a predictable way:
- Metals lose electrons to form positive ions (cations), which are smaller than the neutral atom because the electron cloud is removed and the remaining electrons are pulled in by the same nuclear charge.
- Non-metals gain electrons to form negative ions (anions), which are larger than the neutral atom because the added electrons increase electron-electron repulsion and the nuclear charge is spread over more electrons.
Thus a small ionic radius compared with the atomic radius indicates a cation (metal), while a larger ionic radius indicates an anion (non-metal).
Physical properties also follow structure:
- Metals conduct electricity well; metalloids such as silicon are semiconductors; non-metals such as chlorine are poor conductors.
- Giant covalent structures (e.g. silicon) and metallic lattices have high melting points; simple molecular substances (e.g. ) have low melting points.
- A metal and a non-metal typically react to form an ionic compound.
Understanding the Question
The table gives atomic and ionic radii for three Period 3 elements, X, Y and Z. We must identify them and then decide which of four statements is correct. This is a one-mark multiple-choice question, so the fastest route is to identify the elements from the radii and then test each statement.
Approach
- Use the atomic radius to place each element in Period 3.
- Use the ionic radius to decide whether the element forms a cation (smaller ion) or an anion (larger ion).
- Identify X, Y and Z.
- Evaluate each option in turn, using structure-property reasoning.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Identify Z: atomic radius 0.160 nm matches Mg. Its ionic radius 0.072 nm is smaller than the atomic radius, consistent with (a cation). So Z = Mg.
Identify Y: atomic radius 0.099 nm matches Cl. Its ionic radius 0.180 nm is larger than the atomic radius, consistent with (an anion). So Y = Cl.
Identify X: atomic radius 0.118 nm and ionic radius 0.053 nm. The smaller ionic radius shows X forms a cation; the value places X as Si. (Even if the exact identification is uncertain, X is clearly a Period 3 metalloid/non-metal that forms a small cation.)
Now test the options:
A: 'Element X has lower electrical conductivity than element Y.' Si is a semiconductor and conducts electricity to some extent, whereas is a non-metal gas that does not conduct. So X has higher conductivity, not lower. False.
B: 'Element Y has a higher melting point than element X.' is a simple molecular substance with weak intermolecular forces and a very low melting point. Si has a giant covalent structure with strong covalent bonds throughout, giving a high melting point. So Y has a lower melting point, not higher. False.
C: 'Element Y and element Z react to form an ionic compound.' Y = Cl (non-metal) and Z = Mg (metal). Mg reacts with to form , which is ionic because the metal transfers electrons to the non-metal. True.
D: 'Element Z forms ionic compounds by gaining electrons.' Z = Mg, a metal. Metals form ionic compounds by losing electrons, not gaining them. Mg loses two electrons to form . False.
Therefore the correct statement is C.
Key Takeaways
- Atomic radius decreases across a period; ionic radius depends on whether the species is a cation or anion.
- Cations are smaller than their atoms; anions are larger.
- Identify elements from periodic data before evaluating statements.
- Structure determines properties: metallic/giant covalent vs simple molecular.
Common Mistakes
- Assuming all Period 3 elements are metals; Cl is a non-metal.
- Thinking a non-metal forms cations; non-metals gain electrons to form anions.
- Confusing 'loses electrons' with 'gains electrons' for metals.
- Ignoring structure when comparing melting points: is molecular, not giant covalent.
- Misreading the table and swapping Y and Z.
Things to Be Careful About
- Use the correct direction of the atomic radius trend across Period 3.
- Remember that ionic radius is not simply 'smaller than atomic' for every element; anions are larger.
- For electrical conductivity, distinguish metals, semiconductors and non-metals.
- For ionic compound formation, identify which element is the metal and which is the non-metal.
Three equations are listed. , and are all whole numbers.
Which equations can be balanced if and ?
Options
A 1 and 3
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
Working
For equation 1: 4Al + yO2 → 2Al2O3
- Al: 4 = 2 × 2 = 4, balanced.
- O: 2y = 2 × 3 = 6, so y = 3.
Balanced with whole numbers.
For equation 2: 4Mg + yO2 → 2MgO
- Mg: 4 ≠ 2, not balanced.
Cannot be balanced with z = 2.
For equation 3: 4Na + yO2 → 2Na2O
- Na: 4 = 2 × 2 = 4, balanced.
- O: 2y = 2, so y = 1.
Balanced with whole numbers.
Answer
A (1 and 3)
A
Background Concept
Balancing a chemical equation means making sure the number of atoms of each element is the same on both sides. Coefficients must be whole numbers. When some coefficients are fixed, the remaining coefficient must still be a whole number for the equation to be balanced.
Understanding the Question
We are told that x = 4 and z = 2 for all three equations. For each equation, we must decide whether there is a whole-number value of y that balances the equation. The question asks which equations can be balanced under these conditions.
Approach
Substitute x = 4 and z = 2 into each equation. Then write an atom-balance equation for each element present. Solve for y. If y is a whole number, the equation can be balanced.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
-
Equation 1: 4Al + yO2 → 2Al2O3
- Al atoms: left = 4, right = 2 × 2 = 4. Balanced.
- O atoms: left = 2y, right = 2 × 3 = 6. So 2y = 6, giving y = 3.
- y = 3 is a whole number, so equation 1 works.
-
Equation 2: 4Mg + yO2 → 2MgO
- Mg atoms: left = 4, right = 2. These are not equal.
- Since z is fixed at 2, the product side always contains 2 Mg atoms, so no value of y can balance Mg.
- Equation 2 does not work.
-
Equation 3: 4Na + yO2 → 2Na2O
- Na atoms: left = 4, right = 2 × 2 = 4. Balanced.
- O atoms: left = 2y, right = 2. So 2y = 2, giving y = 1.
- y = 1 is a whole number, so equation 3 works.
Therefore, equations 1 and 3 can be balanced, so the correct option is A.
Key Takeaways
When coefficients are fixed, check each element separately. A coefficient that is fixed may make balancing impossible for one element, even if the other elements balance.
Common Mistakes
- Trying to change z when the question fixes z = 2.
- Forgetting to multiply the subscript by the coefficient when counting atoms.
- Assuming all three equations must use the same value of y; they do not.
Things to Be Careful About
In Al2O3, one formula unit contains 2 Al atoms and 3 O atoms, so 2Al2O3 contains 4 Al and 6 O. In Na2O, one formula unit contains 2 Na atoms and 1 O atom, so 2Na2O contains 4 Na and 2 O. Always count atoms using both coefficients and subscripts.
Which oxide has a simple structure rather than a giant structure?
Options
A
B
C
D
Working
- : giant ionic lattice
- : giant ionic lattice
- : giant covalent (macromolecular) structure
- : discrete covalent molecules held by weak intermolecular forces
Only has a simple molecular structure.
Answer
D —
D
Background Concept
Oxides can be divided into two broad structural classes. A giant structure extends indefinitely in three dimensions: it may be a giant ionic lattice (e.g. , ) held together by electrostatic attractions, or a giant covalent macromolecular network (e.g. ) held together by a continuous network of covalent bonds. A simple structure consists of discrete molecules, such as , in which atoms within each molecule are joined by covalent bonds but the molecules themselves are held to one another only by weak intermolecular forces, usually van der Waals forces. This distinction explains many physical properties: giant structures have high melting points and are often hard solids, whereas simple molecular substances are often volatile and have lower melting/boiling points.
Understanding the Question
This is a classification question. It asks which oxide has a simple structure rather than a giant structure. The phrase “simple structure” here means discrete molecules, not a simple chemical formula. You need to know the structural type of each oxide and select the one that is molecular rather than a giant lattice or network.
Approach
Recall the structure of each oxide in turn:
- — metal oxide, giant ionic lattice.
- — metal oxide, giant ionic lattice.
- — non-metal oxide, but giant covalent macromolecular network.
- — non-metal oxide, discrete covalent molecules.
Then choose the oxide that consists of separate molecules.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
-
is an ionic compound formed from and ions. These ions pack into a regular three-dimensional lattice, so the structure is giant ionic.
-
is also an ionic compound. The and ions form a giant ionic lattice, even though the bonding has some covalent character. It is still a giant structure.
-
is a non-metal oxide, but it does not form discrete molecules. Each silicon atom is bonded tetrahedrally to four oxygen atoms, and each oxygen atom is bonded to two silicon atoms, producing an endless covalent network. This is a giant covalent structure.
-
is phosphorus(V) oxide. It exists as discrete molecules. Within each molecule the atoms are joined by covalent bonds, but between molecules there are only weak van der Waals forces. This is a simple molecular structure.
Therefore the correct answer is D.
Key Takeaways
- Metal oxides such as and are typically giant ionic lattices.
- Not all non-metal oxides are molecular: is a giant covalent network.
- A simple molecular oxide consists of discrete molecules held together by weak intermolecular forces.
- The word “simple” in this context refers to the presence of separate molecules, not to a small formula.
Common Mistakes
- Assuming that every non-metal oxide has a simple molecular structure. is the key exception and is a giant covalent structure.
- Confusing with a covalent molecular compound because of its covalent character. It is still a giant ionic lattice.
- Interpreting “simple structure” as meaning “simple chemical formula” rather than “discrete molecules”.
Things to Be Careful About
- Read the wording carefully: “simple structure rather than a giant structure” is asking about the type of lattice/network, not about acidity, oxidation state, or chemical formula.
- Remember that is often described as macromolecular or giant covalent, so it must not be chosen as the molecular oxide.
- In an MCQ, check all four options before selecting; more than one oxide may look similar at first glance.
The trends seen in Group 2 can be used to predict the properties of radium and its compounds.
Which statement is correct?
Options
A Radium has the highest second ionisation energy of the elements in Group 2.
B Radium hydroxide is the least soluble of the hydroxides of the elements in Group 2.
C Radium carbonate has the lowest thermal stability of the carbonates of the elements in Group 2.
D Radium reacts faster with water than the other elements in Group 2.
Working
Down Group 2, as the atomic radius increases and shielding increases:
- A — False. Ionisation energies decrease down the group, so radium has the lowest second ionisation energy, not the highest.
- B — False. Solubility of the hydroxides increases down the group, so radium hydroxide is the most soluble, not the least.
- C — False. Thermal stability of the carbonates increases down the group, so radium carbonate is the most stable, not the least.
- D — True. Reactivity with water increases down the group, so radium reacts fastest.
Answer
D
D
Background Concept
Group 2 (beryllium to barium) shows smooth, predictable trends in physical and chemical properties as the group is descended. The underlying cause is the increase in atomic radius and the increasing shielding of the outer two electrons by the filled inner shells, which weakens the attraction between the nucleus and the outermost electrons down the group. This single factor drives the direction of every trend tested in this question: ionisation energy, solubility of hydroxides, thermal stability of carbonates, and reactivity with water.
Radium is the element directly below barium, so its properties are the natural continuation of these trends — the most extreme version of the down-group behaviour.
Understanding the Question
This is a multiple-choice question asking which of four statements about radium (the heaviest Group 2 element) is correct. The question explicitly tells you to use Group 2 trends to predict radium's properties, so the task is to recall the direction of each trend down the group and apply it to radium. Each option tests a different trend, so you must evaluate all four statements independently before choosing the single correct one.
Approach
For each statement, recall the relevant down-group trend and its cause:
- Ionisation energy — decreases down the group because the outer electrons are further from the nucleus and more shielded. Radium therefore has the lowest, not highest, second ionisation energy.
- Solubility of hydroxides — increases down the group (Mg(OH)2 is sparingly soluble; Ba(OH)2 is quite soluble). Radium hydroxide would be the most soluble, not the least.
- Thermal stability of carbonates — increases down the group (MgCO3 decomposes readily on heating; BaCO3 needs a very high temperature). Radium carbonate would be the most stable, not the least.
- Reactivity with water — increases down the group (Be shows no reaction; Mg reacts slowly; Ca moderately; Sr and Ba vigorously). Radium would react fastest of all.
Only statement D matches the correct trend direction, so D is the answer.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Statement A — Ionisation energy. The second ionisation energy is the energy needed to remove a second electron from a gaseous 1+ ion. Down Group 2, the successive elements have larger atomic radii and greater electron shielding, so the outer electron is held less tightly. The second ionisation energy therefore decreases down the group. Radium, at the bottom, has the lowest second ionisation energy, making A false.
Statement B — Solubility of hydroxides. The hydroxides of Group 2 become more soluble down the group. Beryllium hydroxide is essentially insoluble, magnesium hydroxide is sparingly soluble, and barium hydroxide dissolves readily. Radium hydroxide, continuing this trend, would be the most soluble of the Group 2 hydroxides, so B is false.
Statement C — Thermal stability of carbonates. The carbonates of Group 2 become more thermally stable down the group. Magnesium carbonate decomposes on gentle heating (MgCO3 → MgO + CO2), whereas barium carbonate requires a very high temperature. The stability increases because the larger cation has a weaker polarising effect on the carbonate ion, making it harder to break down. Radium carbonate would therefore be the most thermally stable, not the least, so C is false.
Statement D — Reactivity with water. The metals of Group 2 become more reactive with water down the group. Beryllium does not react with water; magnesium reacts very slowly; calcium reacts moderately; strontium and barium react vigorously. The increasing reactivity reflects the ease with which the outer two electrons are lost (lower ionisation energies). Radium, at the bottom of the group, would react fastest with water, making D correct.
Since D is the only true statement, it is the correct answer.
Key Takeaways
- All the down-group trends in Group 2 share a single cause: increasing atomic radius and shielding weaken the hold on the outer electrons.
- Ionisation energies decrease down the group.
- Solubility of hydroxides increases down the group.
- Thermal stability of carbonates increases down the group.
- Reactivity with water increases down the group.
- To predict properties of an element not in the syllabus (like radium), extrapolate the established trend in the correct direction.
Common Mistakes
- Reversing the solubility trend — thinking hydroxides become less soluble down the group. In fact solubility of Group 2 hydroxides increases down the group.
- Reversing the thermal stability trend — thinking carbonates become less stable down the group. Thermal stability of Group 2 carbonates increases down the group.
- Confusing ionisation energy direction — ionisation energies decrease down the group, so radium has the lowest, not highest, second ionisation energy.
- Mixing up reactivity with water — reactivity increases down the group, so radium is the most reactive, not the least.
Things to Be Careful About
- Read each statement's direction carefully: 'highest' vs 'lowest', 'least' vs 'most soluble', 'lowest' vs 'highest thermal stability'.
- Remember that the question explicitly asks you to predict using trends, so the answer must be the statement that correctly continues the trend to radium.
- The correct answer is the statement that matches the true direction of the trend; the other three are reversed versions of the correct trends.
Equal masses of , , and are thermally decomposed. The volume of gas produced in each experiment is measured under the same conditions.
Which compound will produce the greatest volume of gas?
Options
A
B
C
D
Working
Thermal decompositions:
So per mole: carbonates give 1 mol of gas, nitrates give 2.5 mol of gas.
Equal masses contain more moles of the compound with the smaller . Among the nitrates, has a smaller than , so it gives more moles of gas per gram.
Answer
B —
B
Background Concept
Group 2 carbonates and nitrates are ionic solids that decompose when heated strongly.
-
A Group 2 carbonate decomposes to the metal oxide and carbon dioxide:
So 1 mol of carbonate produces 1 mol of gas.
-
A Group 2 nitrate decomposes to the metal oxide, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen:
So 1 mol of nitrate produces 2.5 mol of gas.
Under the same conditions of temperature and pressure, gas volume is proportional to the number of moles of gas (Avogadro's law). Therefore the compound that produces the greatest number of moles of gas per gram of solid gives the greatest volume.
Understanding the Question
The question gives equal masses of four different Group 2 compounds and asks which produces the greatest volume of gas on thermal decomposition. It is not asking for an actual volume, only a comparison. The key is to compare moles of gas produced per gram of each compound, not per mole, because the masses are equal but the molar masses are different.
Approach
- Write the thermal decomposition equation for each type of compound.
- Determine the number of moles of gas produced per mole of compound.
- Divide by the molar mass of the compound to find moles of gas per gram.
- Compare the four values; the largest corresponds to the greatest gas volume.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Approximate molar masses:
- : about 100 g mol
- : about 164 g mol
- : about 197 g mol
- : about 261 g mol
Gas produced per mole of compound:
- Carbonates: 1 mol gas per mol
- Nitrates: 2.5 mol gas per mol
Now compare gas moles per gram:
| Compound | / g mol | Gas per mol / mol | Gas per gram / mol g |
|---|---|---|---|
| 100 | 1 | ||
| 164 | 2.5 | ||
| 197 | 1 | ||
| 261 | 2.5 |
The largest value is for , so it produces the greatest volume of gas.
Why the others are not correct:
- A, : Although it has the smallest molar mass, it produces only 1 mol of gas per mole, so it loses to .
- C, : Barium is much heavier, so equal masses contain fewer moles, and it also produces only 1 mol of gas per mole.
- D, : It produces the same 2.5 mol of gas per mole as calcium nitrate, but barium is much heavier, so equal masses contain fewer moles of it.
Key Takeaways
- When comparing equal masses, always convert to moles using molar mass.
- Gas volume under the same conditions is directly proportional to moles of gas.
- Group 2 carbonates give 1 mol of gas per mole; Group 2 nitrates give 2.5 mol of gas per mole.
- A lower molar mass can make a compound win even if it is not the one with the most gas per mole, but here calcium nitrate wins on both gas-per-mole and favourable molar mass compared with barium nitrate.
Common Mistakes
- Assuming all four compounds produce the same amount of gas per mole.
- Comparing gas produced per mole instead of per gram when the starting masses are equal.
- Using the alkali metal nitrate decomposition (nitrite + oxygen) instead of the Group 2 nitrate decomposition (oxide + nitrogen dioxide + oxygen).
- Forgetting that barium compounds have much larger molar masses, so equal masses contain fewer moles.
- Thinking carbonates must win because they release ; nitrates actually release more moles of gas.
Things to Be Careful About
- Balance the decomposition equations and include state symbols.
- Use consistent approximate molar masses; exact values are not needed for the comparison.
- Remember that equal masses do not mean equal moles.
- Since all gas volumes are measured under the same conditions, no gas volume calculation is needed; only the mole ratio matters.
- If the question asked about mass of gas rather than volume, the molar masses of the gases would also matter, but here volume depends only on moles of gas.
Equation 1 and equation 2 show two different reactions of halide ion with concentrated sulfuric acid.
What is Q?
Options
A or
B or
C only
D only
Working
Equation 1 is an acid–base reaction: protonates to form . Equation 2 is a redox reaction: sulfur in is reduced from to in , while is oxidised from to in .
This requires to be a sufficiently strong reducing agent. is not strong enough to reduce concentrated to ; only is formed. Both and are strong enough reducing agents and undergo both reactions.
Answer
B ( or )
B
Background Concept
Concentrated sulfuric acid can act both as an acid and as an oxidising agent. With solid halides, the first reaction is acid–base: sulfuric acid donates a proton to the halide ion, forming the hydrogen halide, . For halides that are strong enough reducing agents, the hydrogen halide formed can then reduce sulfuric acid, oxidising the halide ion to the halogen and reducing sulfur from in to lower oxidation states such as in .
The reducing power of the halide ions increases down Group 17: . This is because the larger the halide ion, the more easily it can lose an electron to be oxidised.
Understanding the Question
The question gives two equations for the reaction of a halide ion with concentrated sulfuric acid.
- Equation 1: — this is an acid–base reaction.
- Equation 2: — this is a redox reaction.
We need to identify which halide ions can undergo both reactions. This depends on whether the halide is a strong enough reducing agent to reduce sulfuric acid to sulfur dioxide.
Approach
Check each halide ion against the two reactions.
- All halide ions form the hydrogen halide with concentrated sulfuric acid, so equation 1 is possible for , and .
- Only halides that are strong enough reducing agents can bring about equation 2.
- Recall the trend in reducing power: .
- Chloride is not strong enough to reduce to ; bromide and iodide are.
This leads directly to option B.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
- In equation 1, acts as a proton donor and acts as a base. This happens for all halide ions.
- In equation 2, determine the oxidation states:
- In , sulfur has oxidation state .
- In , sulfur has oxidation state .
- In , the halide has oxidation state .
- In , the halogen has oxidation state .
- Therefore equation 2 is a redox reaction in which sulfuric acid is reduced and the halide ion is oxidised.
- For this to happen, must be a sufficiently strong reducing agent.
- With : concentrated sulfuric acid produces only ; no redox reaction occurs because chloride is too weak a reducing agent.
- With : hydrogen bromide reduces sulfuric acid to , and bromide is oxidised to bromine.
- With : hydrogen iodide reduces sulfuric acid to (and can reduce it further to sulfur or hydrogen sulfide with excess iodide), and iodide is oxidised to iodine.
- Hence both and satisfy the equations, so the answer is B.
Why the other options are wrong:
- Option A includes , which cannot reduce to .
- Option C says only , which is wrong for the same reason.
- Option D says only , but also works, so it is incomplete.
Key Takeaways
The key idea is the trend in reducing power of halide ions down Group 17. Chloride is too weak a reducing agent to reduce concentrated sulfuric acid, while bromide and iodide can. Recognising a redox reaction by tracking oxidation states is essential: sulfur changes from to , and the halide changes from to .
Common Mistakes
- Thinking that because is formed, chloride must also reduce sulfuric acid. Formation of the hydrogen halide is an acid–base reaction, not a redox reaction.
- Choosing option D because iodide is the strongest reducing agent, while forgetting that bromide also reduces sulfuric acid to .
- Confusing equation 1 with a redox reaction. It is simply proton transfer.
- Not recognising that equation 2 requires a sufficiently strong reducing agent.
Things to Be Careful About
- The oxidation state of sulfur in is , and in it is .
- The halide ion has oxidation state ; the halogen molecule has oxidation state .
- With iodide, further reduction of sulfuric acid to sulfur or hydrogen sulfide is possible, but the equation given only asks about formation of , which iodide can also bring about.
- The question asks which halide ions fit both equations, so both bromide and iodide must be included.
What happens when iodine solution is added to a solution of sodium bromide?
Options
A A reaction occurs without changes in oxidation state.
B Bromide ions are oxidised; iodine atoms are reduced.
C Bromide ions are reduced; iodine atoms are oxidised.
D No reaction occurs.
Working
Iodine is a weaker oxidising agent than bromine: oxidising power decreases down Group 17 (). A halogen can only displace a halide ion if it is the stronger oxidising agent. Iodine cannot oxidise ions to , so no displacement occurs.
Answer
D (No reaction occurs)
D
Background Concept
Halogens act as oxidising agents: each halogen atom gains one electron to form a halide ion, e.g. . The strength of this oxidising power decreases down Group 17 () because atomic radius increases down the group, so the incoming electron is attracted less strongly by the nucleus and is gained less readily.
This trend drives the classic halogen displacement reaction: a halogen will oxidise (displace) the halide ion of a halogen below it in the group, because the added halogen is the stronger oxidising agent. For example, chlorine displaces bromide and iodide ions from their salts:
But bromine can only displace iodide ions, not chloride ions, and iodine — the weakest oxidising agent of the three — can displace neither bromide nor chloride ions.
Understanding the Question
This multiple-choice question asks what happens when iodine solution is added to a solution of sodium bromide. The candidate must decide whether a reaction occurs and, if so, what the redox change is. The key chemical situation is a potential displacement: iodine is being offered the chance to oxidise to . The options test both whether a reaction occurs (A and D) and, if it does, the correct direction of oxidation and reduction (B and C).
Approach
The decision hinges entirely on the relative oxidising strengths of iodine and bromine. Recall the order of oxidising power down Group 17 (). Because iodine is the weaker oxidising agent, it cannot force electrons off bromide ions. Therefore no redox reaction takes place, and the correct option is D. No calculation or equation writing is needed — this is a recall-and-apply question.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
- Identify the proposed reaction: if iodine displaced bromine, the equation would be
- For this to happen, would have to accept electrons from , i.e. oxidise to while itself being reduced to .
- Compare oxidising power: bromine is a stronger oxidising agent than iodine (it sits higher in Group 17). Consequently, is a weaker reducing agent than . A weak reducing agent cannot reduce the weak oxidising agent .
- Conclusion: no electron transfer occurs, so no reaction takes place. Option D is correct.
Why the distractors are wrong:
- A claims a reaction occurs without a change in oxidation state. No reaction occurs at all, so A is false. (A redox reaction would be required for displacement, and none happens.)
- B says bromide ions are oxidised and iodine atoms are reduced. This describes the displacement that would happen if iodine were the stronger oxidising agent — but it is not, so no such change occurs.
- C says bromide ions are reduced and iodine atoms are oxidised. This reverses the correct redox direction and is also wrong because no reaction occurs.
Key Takeaways
- Oxidising power of halogens decreases down Group 17: .
- A halogen displaces a halide ion only when it is the stronger oxidising agent (i.e. the added halogen is above the halide's halogen in the group).
- Iodine, being the weakest oxidising agent of the three common halogens, displaces neither bromide nor chloride ions.
Common Mistakes
- Assuming the "heavier" halogen displaces the lighter one. Displacement depends on oxidising power, not on atomic mass — iodine is the weakest oxidising agent, so it displaces nothing.
- Confusing the trend in oxidising power with the trend in reducing power. Halide ions show the reverse trend: is the strongest reducing agent and the weakest. This is why cannot oxidise .
- Choosing B or C. Both describe a reaction occurring with a specific redox direction; since no reaction occurs, both are automatically incorrect.
Things to Be Careful About
- Remember the displacement rule operates in one direction only: a halogen higher in the group displaces the halide of a halogen lower in the group.
- Note that in a displacement, the added halogen is reduced (gains electrons to become halide ions) and the halide ions are oxidised (lose electrons to become the halogen). Getting this direction backwards is a common error.
- If the question had been "chlorine added to sodium bromide," a reaction would occur and the correct answer would describe bromide ions being oxidised and chlorine being reduced — the exact opposite situation from this one.
Which statement is correct?
Options
A Nitrogen is unreactive due to the absence of lone pairs in the molecule.
B Aqueous ammonia contains both and . The ion is a Brønsted–Lowry acid.
C High temperatures are needed to supply the energy to break the strong double bonds in nitrogen molecules when they react.
D Atmospheric reacts with unburnt hydrocarbons to form a component of photochemical smog.
Working
- A is incorrect. Nitrogen is unreactive because the N≡N triple bond is very strong; the molecule does have a lone pair on each nitrogen atom.
- B is correct. In aqueous ammonia, NH3 accepts a proton from water: NH3 + H2O ⇌ NH4+ + OH−. NH4+ can donate a proton, so it is a Brønsted–Lowry acid.
- C is incorrect. Nitrogen molecules contain a strong triple bond, not double bonds.
- D is incorrect. Photochemical smog is formed from nitrogen oxides and unburnt hydrocarbons in sunlight; SO2 is mainly linked to acid rain.
Answer
B
B
Background Concept
A Brønsted–Lowry acid is a species that donates a proton (H+); a Brønsted–Lowry base is a species that accepts a proton. When ammonia dissolves in water, an equilibrium is set up:
NH3(aq) + H2O(l) ⇌ NH4+(aq) + OH−(aq)
Here NH3 acts as a base by accepting a proton from water, and NH4+ is its conjugate acid because it can donate that proton back.
Nitrogen gas is very unreactive largely because the N≡N triple bond has a very high bond enthalpy. Each nitrogen atom also has a lone pair, so the molecule is not electron-poor.
Photochemical smog forms when nitrogen oxides and unburnt hydrocarbons react in the presence of sunlight. Sulfur dioxide is mainly associated with acid rain, not photochemical smog.
Understanding the Question
This is a one-mark multiple-choice question asking which of four statements is correct. The statements cover three different areas: the reactivity of nitrogen, acid–base behaviour in aqueous ammonia, and atmospheric pollution. The correct statement must be factually and chemically accurate.
Approach
Evaluate each option in turn. For each, ask: Is this exactly what the chemistry says? Pay special attention to wording such as 'double bonds' versus 'triple bond', and to which pollutants are actually responsible for photochemical smog.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
- Option A: Nitrogen is unreactive because the N≡N triple bond is very strong. The molecule does have lone pairs on each nitrogen atom, so the reason given is wrong.
- Option B: In aqueous ammonia, NH3 accepts a proton from water to form NH4+ and OH−. Because NH4+ can donate a proton, it is a Brønsted–Lowry acid. This statement is correct.
- Option C: Nitrogen molecules contain a triple bond, not double bonds. The statement is factually wrong.
- Option D: Photochemical smog is produced from nitrogen oxides and unburnt hydrocarbons in sunlight. SO2 is not the main component involved in photochemical smog formation; it is more closely linked to acid rain. The statement is wrong.
Key Takeaways
- Know the Brønsted–Lowry definitions: acid = proton donor, base = proton acceptor.
- Remember that N2 is unreactive because of its strong triple bond, not because it lacks lone pairs.
- Photochemical smog: NOx + hydrocarbons + sunlight.
Common Mistakes
- Assuming nitrogen has no lone pairs. It does, but this does not make it reactive.
- Confusing the N≡N triple bond with a double bond.
- Attributing photochemical smog to SO2 instead of NOx and hydrocarbons.
Things to Be Careful About
- Read each statement word-for-word; a single word like 'double' instead of 'triple' makes an option false.
- In aqueous ammonia, both NH3 and NH4+ are present; NH4+ is the conjugate acid.
When dry ammonia and hydrogen chloride gases are mixed, a solid white ionic compound is formed.
Two statements are listed.
- The formation of the ionic compound is a redox reaction.
- During the formation of the ionic compound, the bond angle increases.
Which statements are correct?
Options
A both 1 and 2
B 1 only
C 2 only
D neither 1 nor 2
Working
Statement 1
In : H is +1, N is \textendash 3.
In : H is +1, Cl is \textendash 1.
In : N is \textendash 3, H is +1, Cl is \textendash 1.
No element changes oxidation number, so the reaction is not a redox reaction. Statement 1 is false.
Statement 2
is trigonal pyramidal, with an H\textendash N\textendash H bond angle of about 107°.
is tetrahedral, with an H\textendash N\textendash H bond angle of 109.5°.
The bond angle increases. Statement 2 is true.
Answer
C (2 only)
C
Background Concept
When dry ammonia and hydrogen chloride gases are mixed, they react to form ammonium chloride:
The nitrogen atom in ammonia has a lone pair of electrons. The hydrogen ion, , from hydrogen chloride accepts this lone pair, forming a coordinate (dative covalent) bond. The product is an ionic compound containing and ions.
A redox reaction is one in which oxidation numbers of elements change, because electrons are transferred. Here no electron transfer occurs; a proton, , is transferred, so this is an acid\textendash base reaction, not a redox reaction.
The shape around the nitrogen atom is determined by VSEPR theory. In , nitrogen has three bonding pairs and one lone pair. The lone pair repels more strongly than a bonding pair, compressing the H\textendash N\textendash H bond angle to about 107°. In , nitrogen has four bonding pairs and no lone pairs, giving a regular tetrahedral shape with bond angles of 109.5°.
Understanding the Question
The question asks you to judge two statements about the formation of ammonium chloride from ammonia and hydrogen chloride:
- Is the reaction a redox reaction?
- Does the H\textendash N\textendash H bond angle increase during the reaction?
You must then select the option that correctly identifies which statements are true.
Approach
For statement 1, assign oxidation numbers to every atom in the reactants and products. If no oxidation number changes, the reaction is not redox.
For statement 2, compare the VSEPR shape and bond angle of with those of . The bond angle depends on the number of lone pairs on the central nitrogen atom.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Statement 1: Is it redox?
Oxidation numbers are assigned using the usual rules: hydrogen is +1 in compounds with non-metals, chlorine is \textendash 1 in chlorides, and the sum of oxidation numbers in a neutral compound is zero.
- In : H = +1, so N = \textendash 3.
- In : H = +1, Cl = \textendash 1.
- In : H = +1, so N = \textendash 3.
- In : Cl = \textendash 1.
Every element keeps the same oxidation number. No electrons are transferred; instead a proton is transferred and a coordinate bond is formed. Therefore the reaction is not redox. Statement 1 is false.
Statement 2: Does the H\textendash N\textendash H bond angle increase?
In , the nitrogen atom has three bonding pairs and one lone pair. The lone pair occupies more space and repels the bonding pairs more strongly, so the H\textendash N\textendash H bond angle is about 107°, slightly less than the ideal tetrahedral angle.
In , the nitrogen atom has four bonding pairs and no lone pairs. The four bonding pairs repel equally, giving a tetrahedral shape with an H\textendash N\textendash H bond angle of 109.5°.
Since 109.5° is greater than 107°, the bond angle does increase. Statement 2 is true.
Only statement 2 is correct, so the answer is C.
Key Takeaways
- A reaction is redox only if oxidation numbers change; forming ions does not by itself mean electrons were transferred.
- A coordinate bond forms when one species donates a lone pair to another species, as in .
- VSEPR theory predicts shapes from the number of bonding and lone pairs around the central atom: is trigonal pyramidal, while is tetrahedral.
- Lone pairs repel more strongly than bonding pairs, reducing bond angles below the ideal tetrahedral value.
Common Mistakes
- Assuming that because an ionic compound forms, the reaction must be redox. Ion formation can occur by proton transfer, not electron transfer.
- Forgetting that has no lone pair on nitrogen, so its shape is tetrahedral rather than pyramidal.
- Thinking the bond angle stays the same because both species contain four electron pairs around nitrogen. The lone pair in makes the angle smaller.
- Confusing the bond angle values: is about 107°, is 109.5°.
Things to Be Careful About
- Assign oxidation numbers carefully in : nitrogen is \textendash 3, not +5.
- The word “dry” is included to show the gases are anhydrous, but it does not affect the chemistry of the bond angle change.
- In multiple-choice questions, make sure you evaluate each statement independently before choosing an option.
- The correct option is the letter only; do not add extra reasoning in the final answer line.
The diagrams show skeletal formulas of some isomers of .
Which statement is correct?
Options
A 1 and 3 are chain isomers of each other and positional isomers of each other.
B 2 and 3 are functional group isomers of each other and both have a chiral centre.
C 1 and 4 are functional group isomers of each other and both have a chiral centre.
D 2 and 4 are positional isomers of each other and functional group isomers of each other.
Working
- Structure 1 is hexanal (an aldehyde with a straight 6-carbon chain). It has no chiral centre.
- Structure 2 is 3-methylpentan-2-one (a ketone with a branched 5-carbon chain). Carbon-3 is bonded to four different groups (, , , ), so it has a chiral centre.
- Structure 3 is 2-methylpentanal (an aldehyde with a branched 5-carbon chain). Carbon-2 is bonded to four different groups (, , , ), so it has a chiral centre.
- Structure 4 is hexan-3-one (a ketone with a straight 6-carbon chain). It has no chiral centre.
Evaluating the options:
- A: Structures 1 and 3 are chain isomers (different carbon skeletons) but not positional isomers, as positional isomers must have the same carbon skeleton. Incorrect.
- B: Structures 2 (ketone) and 3 (aldehyde) have the same molecular formula but different functional groups, making them functional group isomers. Both structures possess a chiral centre. Correct.
- C: Structures 1 and 4 are functional group isomers (aldehyde and ketone), but neither possesses a chiral centre. Incorrect.
- D: Structures 2 and 4 are both ketones, so they are not functional group isomers. They are chain isomers, not positional isomers. Incorrect.
Answer
B
B
Background Concept
Structural Isomerism occurs when molecules have the same molecular formula but different structural arrangements of atoms. There are three main types:
- Chain isomerism: Different arrangements of the carbon skeleton (e.g., straight chain vs. branched chain).
- Positional isomerism: Same carbon skeleton and same functional group, but the functional group is attached at a different position on the chain.
- Functional group isomerism: Same molecular formula but different functional groups (e.g., an aldehyde and a ketone with the formula ).
Stereoisomerism occurs when molecules have the same structural formula but different spatial arrangements. Optical isomerism arises when a molecule contains a chiral centre — a carbon atom bonded to four different groups. Such molecules exist as non-superimposable mirror images (enantiomers).
Understanding the Question
The question provides four skeletal structures of isomers with the molecular formula and asks to identify the correct statement regarding their isomerism and chirality. We must determine the functional group, carbon skeleton, and presence of a chiral centre for each structure, then evaluate the four given statements.
Approach
- Identify the IUPAC name, functional group, and carbon skeleton for each structure (1–4).
- Check each structure for a chiral centre (a carbon with four different substituents).
- Evaluate each option (A, B, C, D) against these findings.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Structure 1: Hexanal ()
- Functional group: Aldehyde ()
- Skeleton: Straight 6-carbon chain
- Chiral centre: None. All carbons are either , , or part of the planar group.
Structure 2: 3-Methylpentan-2-one ()
- Functional group: Ketone ()
- Skeleton: Branched (5-carbon main chain with a methyl branch at C3)
- Chiral centre: Carbon-3 is bonded to , , , and . All four groups are different, so it is a chiral centre.
Structure 3: 2-Methylpentanal ()
- Functional group: Aldehyde ()
- Skeleton: Branched (5-carbon main chain with a methyl branch at C2)
- Chiral centre: Carbon-2 is bonded to , , , and . All four groups are different, so it is a chiral centre.
Structure 4: Hexan-3-one ()
- Functional group: Ketone ()
- Skeleton: Straight 6-carbon chain
- Chiral centre: None. The carbons adjacent to the carbonyl are groups (bonded to two identical hydrogens).
Evaluating the options:
- A: Structures 1 and 3 are both aldehydes. They have different carbon skeletons (straight 6C vs. branched 5C+1C), so they are chain isomers. However, they are not positional isomers because positional isomers must have the same carbon skeleton. Statement A is false.
- B: Structure 2 is a ketone and Structure 3 is an aldehyde. They have the same molecular formula but different functional groups, making them functional group isomers. As established, both have a chiral centre. Statement B is true.
- C: Structures 1 and 4 are an aldehyde and a ketone, so they are functional group isomers. However, neither has a chiral centre. Statement C is false.
- D: Structures 2 and 4 are both ketones, so they share the same functional group and are not functional group isomers. They have different carbon skeletons (branched vs. straight), making them chain isomers, not positional isomers. Statement D is false.
Key Takeaways
- Functional group isomers must have different functional groups (e.g., aldehyde vs. ketone), not just different positions of the same group.
- Positional isomers require the same carbon skeleton; if the skeleton differs, they are chain isomers.
- A chiral centre requires a carbon atom bonded to four different groups. Always check each substituent carefully, including complex groups like or .
Common Mistakes
- Confusing chain isomers with positional isomers: If the carbon skeleton changes (e.g., hexane vs. methylpentane), they are chain isomers, regardless of where the functional group is placed.
- Assuming all branched molecules have a chiral centre: A chiral centre must have four different groups. For example, if a carbon is bonded to two identical methyl groups, it is not chiral.
- Overlooking that aldehydes and ketones are functional group isomers of each other when they share the same molecular formula (e.g., ).
Things to Be Careful About
- When checking for a chiral centre, remember that double bonds (like in or ) mean the carbon is not tetrahedral and cannot be a chiral centre.
- Ensure you are comparing the correct atoms: in 3-methylpentan-2-one, the chiral centre is at C3, not C2 (which is part of the carbonyl group).
- Functional group isomerism is a distinct category; two molecules cannot be both positional isomers and functional group isomers of each other if they have different functional groups.
The skeletal formulas of two compounds are shown.
Which statements about progesterone and testosterone are correct?
Options
A They both contain a ketone group, and they both have geometrical isomers due to the C=C bond.
B They have the same molecular formula, and they both have geometrical isomers.
C They have the same number of chiral carbons, and they have the same molecular formula.
D They have the same number of chiral carbons, and they both contain a ketone group.
Answer
D
Both molecules contain a ketone group (C=O) in the first ring. Progesterone also has a ketone in its side chain, while testosterone has a hydroxyl group. They do not have the same molecular formula (progesterone is C₂₁H₃₀O₂, testosterone is C₁₉H₂₈O₂). The C=C bond is within a six-membered ring, which is too small to support geometrical (E/Z) isomerism; the double bond is fixed in the cis configuration. Both molecules have six chiral carbon atoms (at the ring junctions and carbons bearing substituents on the five-membered ring).
D
Background Concept
This question tests the ability to interpret skeletal formulae of complex organic molecules (steroids) and apply concepts of functional group identification, molecular formulae, chiral centres, and geometrical isomerism.
- Functional Groups: A ketone is a carbonyl group (C=O) bonded to two carbon atoms. An alcohol is an -OH group bonded to a carbon.
- Molecular Formula: The total count of each type of atom in a molecule. In skeletal formulae, carbon atoms are at vertices and ends of lines; hydrogen atoms attached to carbons are implied to satisfy carbon's valency of 4.
- Chiral Carbon: A carbon atom bonded to four different groups. This leads to optical isomerism.
- Geometrical Isomerism (E/Z or cis/trans): Occurs when there is restricted rotation, typically around a C=C double bond. For each carbon of the double bond to exhibit geometrical isomerism, it must be bonded to two different groups. In small rings (like six-membered rings), an endocyclic double bond (within the ring) is constrained to be cis (Z) because a trans configuration would introduce too much ring strain. Thus, no E/Z isomerism is possible for the C=C bond in these rings.
Understanding the Question
We are given the skeletal structures of progesterone and testosterone and asked to identify the correct pair of statements from the options. We need to evaluate:
- Presence of ketone groups.
- Existence of geometrical isomers due to the C=C bond.
- Molecular formulae (are they the same?).
- Number of chiral carbon atoms.
Approach
- Analyze Functional Groups: Identify C=O and -OH groups in both structures.
- Compare Molecular Formulae: Count carbons and hydrogens (or note the difference in side chains) to see if they are isomers.
- Check Geometrical Isomerism: Examine the C=C bond. Is it endocyclic (in a ring) or exocyclic? What are the substituents on the double-bonded carbons?
- Count Chiral Carbons: Identify carbons with 4 different substituents in both molecules.
- Evaluate Options: Match findings to A, B, C, D.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
1. Functional Groups:
- Progesterone: The left ring (ring A) has a C=O group (ketone). The side chain on the right (ring D) is -C(=O)CH₃, which is also a ketone group. So, progesterone contains ketone groups.
- Testosterone: The left ring (ring A) has a C=O group (ketone). The substituent on the right (ring D) is an -OH group (alcohol/hydroxyl).
- Conclusion: Both contain at least one ketone group. This makes the first part of statements A and D potentially correct.
2. Molecular Formulae:
- Progesterone: Has a steroid nucleus (17 carbons) + 2 methyl groups at ring junctions (2 carbons) + an acetyl side chain (2 carbons) = 21 carbons. Formula: C₂₁H₃₀O₂.
- Testosterone: Has a steroid nucleus (17 carbons) + 2 methyl groups (2 carbons) = 19 carbons. The side chain is just an -OH. Formula: C₁₉H₂₈O₂.
- Conclusion: They do not have the same molecular formula. They are not isomers. This eliminates options B and C.
3. Geometrical Isomerism (C=C bond):
- Both molecules have a C=C double bond in the first ring (ring A), conjugated with the ketone.
- This is an endocyclic double bond within a six-membered ring.
- For geometrical isomerism (E/Z) to exist, each carbon of the C=C bond must have two different groups attached. While the carbons do have different groups attached (one has H and C=O, the other has ring carbons), the ring structure itself locks the double bond in a cis (Z) configuration. A trans double bond in a six-membered ring is too strained to exist under normal conditions.
- Therefore, they do not have geometrical isomers due to the C=C bond.
- This eliminates options A and B.
4. Chiral Carbons:
- A chiral carbon is bonded to 4 different groups.
- Progesterone: Chiral centres are at the ring junctions (C8, C9, C10, C13), C14, and C17 (bonded to H, ring carbons, and the acetyl group). Total = 6 chiral carbons.
- Testosterone: Chiral centres are at the same positions: C8, C9, C10, C13, C14, and C17 (bonded to H, ring carbons, and the -OH group). Total = 6 chiral carbons.
- Conclusion: They have the same number of chiral carbons. This confirms the first part of statement C and D.
5. Final Evaluation:
- A: False (no geometrical isomers).
- B: False (different molecular formulas, no geometrical isomers).
- C: False (different molecular formulas).
- D: True (same number of chiral carbons, both contain ketone groups).
Key Takeaways
- Skeletal Formulae: Remember that vertices and line ends are carbons, and hydrogens are implied. Functional groups like -OH and C=O are drawn explicitly.
- Geometrical Isomerism in Rings: Endocyclic double bonds in small rings (≤7 carbons) are fixed as cis and do not exhibit E/Z isomerism.
- Chiral Centres: Look for sp³ carbons with 4 different attachments. Ring junctions and carbons with substituents on rings are common locations.
- Molecular Formulae: Quick visual inspection of side chains (acetyl vs hydroxyl) is often enough to rule out identical formulae without full counting.
Common Mistakes
- Assuming C=C in a ring can show E/Z isomerism: Students often check if the two groups on each carbon are different and forget that the ring constraint forces a cis geometry, preventing isomerism.
- Miscounting chiral carbons: Forgetting that ring junction carbons (with methyl groups) are chiral if the two paths around the ring are different.
- Confusing ketone and aldehyde: The C=O in the ring is a ketone (bonded to 2 carbons). The side chain in progesterone is also a ketone.
- Ignoring the side chain difference: Progesterone has a 2-carbon side chain (-COCH₃), testosterone has just an -OH. This immediately means different molecular formulae.
Things to Be Careful About
- State symbols and formulae: When comparing molecular formulae, ensure you count all atoms, including the methyl groups at ring junctions (often drawn as vertical lines sticking up from ring junctions).
- Definition of ketone: A carbonyl group bonded to two carbons. Both the ring C=O and the side chain C=O in progesterone are ketones.
- Geometrical isomerism requirements: Must have restricted rotation AND two different groups on each carbon of the double bond. In cyclic alkenes, the ring itself acts as a constraint that usually prevents the trans isomer from forming in small rings.
Which intermediate ion forms in the greatest amount during the addition of to propene?
Options
A
B
C
D
Working
HBr adds to propene, , by electrophilic addition. The adds to the carbon of the double bond that already has more hydrogen atoms (the terminal carbon), forming the more stable secondary carbocation:
The alternative primary carbocation, , is less stable and forms in much smaller amount.
Answer
A —
A
Background Concept
When a hydrogen halide (such as HBr) adds to an alkene, the reaction is an electrophilic addition. The alkene's bond acts as a nucleophile and attacks the electrophilic proton of HBr. This produces a carbocation intermediate, which is then attacked by the halide ion to give the final product.
Markovnikov's rule states that when an unsymmetrical reagent adds to an unsymmetrical alkene, the hydrogen atom adds to the carbon of the double bond that already has the greater number of hydrogen atoms. This rule is a consequence of carbocation stability: the more stable carbocation (more substituted, i.e. secondary > primary) forms in greater amount because the transition state leading to it is lower in energy.
Understanding the Question
The question asks which intermediate ion forms in the greatest amount during the addition of HBr to propene. Propene is — an unsymmetrical alkene. Two different carbocations are possible depending on which carbon the proton attaches to. The question wants the one that predominates.
Approach
- Identify the two possible carbocations from protonation of propene.
- Compare their stabilities (secondary vs primary).
- Select the more stable one, which forms in greater amount.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Step 1 — Write propene and identify the double-bond carbons.
Propene: . The two carbons of the double bond are C1 (terminal, ) and C2 (middle, ).
Step 2 — Protonation of C1 (terminal carbon).
The proton adds to C1, which already has two hydrogens. The positive charge ends up on C2, which is bonded to a methyl group and a hydrogen — so it is a secondary carbocation:
Step 3 — Protonation of C2 (middle carbon).
The proton adds to C2, which has one hydrogen. The positive charge ends up on C1, which is bonded to two hydrogens — so it is a primary carbocation:
Step 4 — Compare stabilities.
Secondary carbocations are more stable than primary carbocations because alkyl groups donate electron density (inductive effect), stabilising the positive charge. Therefore (secondary) forms in greater amount.
Step 5 — Eliminate the other options.
Options C and D are carbanions (negative charge on carbon), which are not formed as intermediates in this electrophilic addition. Option B is the primary carbocation, which forms only in minor amount.
Key Takeaways
- Markovnikov's rule is a direct consequence of carbocation stability.
- Secondary carbocations are more stable than primary; tertiary are even more stable.
- The major intermediate (and major product) is the one formed via the more stable carbocation.
Common Mistakes
- Confusing which carbon the proton adds to. Remember: H adds to the carbon with more H's already.
- Selecting the primary carbocation (option B) because it looks like a "straight-chain" product. The question asks about the intermediate, not the final product structure.
- Thinking options C and D are plausible — they are carbanions, not carbocations, and are not intermediates in this reaction.
Things to Be Careful About
- Read whether the question asks for the intermediate or the final product. Here it is the intermediate ion.
- Ensure you recognise the positive charge on carbon (carbocation) vs negative charge (carbanion).
- In an exam, quickly sketch both possible carbocations and compare their substitution level.
Two hydrocarbons, and , react separately with bromine in the presence of ultraviolet light. One of these hydrocarbons is unsaturated.
In each case, free radical substitution reactions occur.
is .
is .
Which row is correct?
Options
| a propagation stage for the saturated hydrocarbon | a termination stage for the unsaturated hydrocarbon | |
|---|---|---|
| A | ||
| B | ||
| C | ||
| D |
Working
R' is –, so is a saturated alkane. R contains a C=C bond, so is the unsaturated hydrocarbon.
For the saturated hydrocarbon, the first propagation step is hydrogen abstraction by a bromine radical:
For the unsaturated hydrocarbon, a termination step is combination of two alkyl radicals:
These two equations are option C.
Answer
C
C
Background Concept
Free radical substitution of an alkane with bromine in ultraviolet light happens in three types of steps. Initiation generates radicals: for example, absorbs UV light and splits into two radicals. Propagation steps carry the chain: an alkane loses an H atom to , forming an alkyl radical and ; then the alkyl radical reacts with to give the halogenoalkane and regenerate a radical. Termination steps remove radicals from the mixture when two radicals combine to form a molecule. A useful test: a step is propagation only if it starts with one radical and ends with one radical; if two radicals disappear to give a molecule, it is termination.
A hydrocarbon is saturated if it contains only C–C and C–H single bonds, and unsaturated if it contains a C=C or C≡C bond. Here has a C=C bond, so is unsaturated. has only single bonds, so is saturated.
Understanding the Question
This MCQ asks you to choose the row in which the first column is a correct propagation step for the saturated hydrocarbon and the second column is a correct termination step for the unsaturated hydrocarbon. The radicals are named with R and R', so you must first decide which group is saturated and which is unsaturated, and then classify every equation by looking at what reacts and what is produced.
Approach
- Assign saturation: R' is saturated, R is unsaturated.
- Recall the first propagation step for a saturated alkane: an alkane + gives an alkyl radical + . Also recall that a termination step is two radicals combining.
- Test the rows rather than working each equation in isolation. The correct row must have a chain-propagating equation for R' in the first column and a radical-combining equation for R in the second column.
- Option C is the only row where both appear with the correct R/R' labels.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
- Saturated/unsaturated assignment. is an alkane, such as 2-methylbutane; all bonds are single, so it is the saturated hydrocarbon. contains a C=C bond, so it is the unsaturated hydrocarbon.
- Propagation for the saturated hydrocarbon. The first propagation step is H abstraction: . This is shown as the first entry of option C.
- Termination for the unaturated hydrocarbon. Two radicals combine: . This is a termination step and is shown as the second entry of option C.
- Option A. Both equations are radical + going to a molecule. These are termination steps, not propagation, and the first column uses R instead of the saturated R'. A is wrong.
- Option B. Both equations are alkyl radical + going to halogenoalkane + . These are propagation steps, but the first uses R (unsaturated) and the second is not a termination step. B is wrong.
- Option D. The first equation is a termination for the saturated R', but the question asked for a propagation in that column; the second is a propagation for the unsaturated R, but the question asked for a termination. D is wrong.
- Therefore the correct option is C.
Key Takeaways
- Know the three stages of free-radical substitution: initiation, propagation, termination.
- Propagation steps must regenerate a free radical; termination steps remove radicals by combining them.
- Be able to recognise a saturated vs unsaturated group from its carbon skeleton.
- When options use labels such as R and R', check both the chemistry and the label before choosing.
Common Mistakes
- Calling the first row propagation: a radical plus gives a molecule and removes radicals, so it is termination.
- Mixing up R and R': R contains C=C and is unsaturated, while R' is saturated.
- Thinking any step beginning with a radical is propagation; the key is whether a radical is regenerated.
- Forgetting that the second propagation step uses , not .
Things to Be Careful About
- Count radical dots on each side of an equation before classifying the step.
- Remember the stem identifies one hydrocarbon as unsaturated; use the structures to assign R and R' correctly.
- Read both columns separately: a row can be correct for one column but wrong for the other.
- In free-radical equations, atoms and radicals must balance, and any radical dot must be shown.
The fumes from the exhausts of petrol-burning cars contain the following pollutants.
- unburnt hydrocarbons
- nitrogen dioxide
- carbon monoxide
Which pollutants are removed by oxidation in a catalytic converter?
Options
A 1, 2 and 3
B 1 and 2 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 2 and 3 only
Working
In a catalytic converter:
- Unburnt hydrocarbons are oxidised to and .
- is oxidised to .
- is reduced to , not oxidised.
So the pollutants removed by oxidation are 1 and 3 only.
Answer
C
C
Background Concept
A catalytic converter is fitted to petrol cars to reduce the release of harmful exhaust gases. It contains precious-metal catalysts: platinum and palladium promote oxidation, and rhodium promotes reduction. The key redox distinction is:
- Oxidation is loss of electrons (or gain of oxygen).
- Reduction is gain of electrons (or loss of oxygen).
In the exhaust, incomplete combustion of petrol produces carbon monoxide and unburnt hydrocarbons, while the high temperature of the engine causes nitrogen and oxygen from the air to combine, forming nitrogen oxides such as . The converter oxidises the carbon-containing pollutants and reduces the nitrogen oxides.
Understanding the Question
The question lists three pollutants and asks which are removed by oxidation in a catalytic converter. It is testing knowledge of the two roles of the converter: oxidation of CO and hydrocarbons, and reduction of . Statement 2 (nitrogen dioxide) is a trap because it is removed, but by reduction, not oxidation.
Approach
Recall the two half-reactions that happen in the converter. For each pollutant, ask: is it being oxidised (losing electrons/gaining oxygen) or reduced? Then select the option containing the pollutants that are oxidised.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
- Unburnt hydrocarbons: They are oxidised to carbon dioxide and water. For example, for a hydrocarbon :
So statement 1 is true.
2. Carbon monoxide: It is oxidised to carbon dioxide:
So statement 3 is true.
3. Nitrogen dioxide: In the converter, nitrogen oxides are reduced to nitrogen gas, not oxidised:
(one possible balanced equation). The nitrogen is reduced from oxidation state +4 in to 0 in . So statement 2 is not an example of removal by oxidation.
Only statements 1 and 3 are removed by oxidation, so the correct option is C.
Distractors:
- A includes NO2, which is reduced.
- B includes NO2 but omits CO.
- D omits unburnt hydrocarbons.
Key Takeaways
- The catalytic converter has two functions: oxidation of CO and hydrocarbons, and reduction of NOx.
- When asked "removed by oxidation", check the redox change, not just whether the pollutant is removed.
- Oxidation state changes are a reliable way to tell oxidation from reduction.
Common Mistakes
- Assuming every pollutant is oxidised; NO2 is reduced.
- Confusing "removed" with "oxidised".
- Forgetting that unburnt hydrocarbons are oxidised to CO2 and H2O.
Things to Be Careful About
- Use the redox definitions: oxidation = loss of electrons or gain of oxygen; reduction = gain of electrons or loss of oxygen.
- In the converter, CO acts as a reducing agent for NOx, so it is oxidised while NOx is reduced.
- Balance equations with state symbols if writing them out; the redox change is the key point.
Compound X, , is dissolved in ethanol and the solution mixed with warm aqueous silver nitrate.
A precipitate is seen immediately.
What is the colour of this precipitate and what is the structural formula of the first organic product?
Options
Working
Compound X contains three C–X bonds: two C–Cl bonds (one ring Cl, one in –CH₂Cl) and one C–I bond.
Bond strength trend: C–I < C–Br < C–Cl (weakest to strongest).
The C–I bond is the weakest and breaks most readily in nucleophilic substitution with warm aqueous AgNO₃/ethanol. Iodide ions (I⁻) are released first, forming silver iodide:
AgI is a yellow precipitate.
The first organic product forms when water (the nucleophile) replaces the iodine at C4 with an –OH group. The stronger C–Cl bonds do not react as quickly and remain intact.
First organic product: cyclohexane ring with –CH₂Cl at C1, –Cl at C2, and –OH at C4.
Answer
D
D
Background Concept
When haloalkanes are warmed with aqueous silver nitrate in ethanol, nucleophilic substitution occurs. The halogen atom is replaced by an –OH group (from water in the solvent mixture), and the halide ion released reacts with Ag⁺ to form an insoluble silver halide precipitate. The colour of the precipitate identifies which halogen was present:
- AgCl: white
- AgBr: cream (pale yellow)
- AgI: yellow
The rate of reaction depends on the C–X bond enthalpy. Bond strength decreases down Group 17:
The C–I bond is the weakest (lowest bond enthalpy, ~240 kJ mol⁻¹) and therefore breaks most readily. In a molecule containing multiple different halogens, the one with the weakest C–X bond reacts first.
Understanding the Question
Compound X (C₇H₁₁ICl₂) is a cyclohexane derivative bearing three halogen substituents:
- A –CH₂Cl group at C1
- A –Cl atom at C2
- An –I atom at C4
The compound is warmed with aqueous AgNO₃ in ethanol. We must determine:
- The colour of the precipitate formed immediately.
- The structural formula of the first organic product.
The key word is first — only the most reactive C–X bond breaks initially.
Approach
- Identify which C–X bond is weakest and will break first → C–I.
- Determine the precipitate colour from the halide ion released → I⁻ gives AgI (yellow).
- Determine the first organic product → nucleophilic substitution replaces I with OH at C4; the C–Cl bonds remain intact because they are stronger and react more slowly.
- Match these results to the given options.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Step 1: Compare C–X bond strengths.
Compound X has two C–Cl bonds and one C–I bond. The C–I bond has the lowest bond enthalpy (~240 kJ mol⁻¹) compared to C–Cl (~338 kJ mol⁻¹). Therefore, the C–I bond at C4 breaks first in the nucleophilic substitution reaction.
Step 2: Identify the precipitate.
When the C–I bond breaks, I⁻ is released. This reacts with Ag⁺:
Silver iodide (AgI) is a yellow precipitate. This eliminates options A (cream), B (cream), and C (white).
Step 3: Determine the first organic product.
The nucleophile (H₂O from the aqueous solution) attacks the carbon at C4 that lost the iodine, replacing –I with –OH via nucleophilic substitution. The two C–Cl bonds are stronger and do not react under these conditions in the initial stage. Therefore, the first organic product retains:
- –CH₂Cl at C1
- –Cl at C2
- –OH at C4 (replacing –I)
This matches the structure in option D.
Step 4: Verify against options.
- Option A: cream precipitate (wrong — would require Br), both C2 and C4 have –OH (wrong — only C4 reacts first).
- Option B: cream precipitate (wrong), –CH₂OH formed (wrong — C–Cl in –CH₂Cl is stronger than C–I).
- Option C: white precipitate (wrong — would require Cl), –I still present at C4 (wrong — I⁻ must be released to form precipitate).
- Option D: yellow precipitate (correct for AgI), –CH₂Cl and –Cl retained, –OH at C4 (correct first product).
Key Takeaways
- In molecules with multiple halogens, the C–I bond reacts fastest with AgNO₃/ethanol because it is the weakest.
- AgI is yellow, AgBr is cream, AgCl is white — these colours are diagnostic.
- The "first organic product" in a polyhalogenated compound only reflects substitution at the most reactive site; other C–X bonds remain intact unless excess reagent and longer reaction times are used.
Common Mistakes
- Choosing the wrong precipitate colour: Assuming all C–X bonds react simultaneously and trying to average or combine colours. Only the first halide released determines the initial precipitate.
- Assuming –CH₂Cl reacts first: The primary alkyl chloride might seem more reactive due to less steric hindrance, but bond strength (C–I < C–Cl) dominates over steric effects in this initial comparison.
- Replacing all halogens: Writing a product where all three halogens are substituted. The question asks for the first organic product, which only involves the fastest-reacting bond.
- Confusing AgBr and AgI colours: Cream vs yellow can be subtle; remember AgI is distinctly yellow.
Things to Be Careful About
- The word first in "first organic product" is critical — it limits the answer to only the substitution at the most reactive C–X bond.
- State symbols in the ionic equation for AgI formation are not required here since it is an MCQ, but in written answers, always include (s) for the precipitate.
- The solvent mixture (aqueous ethanol) serves dual purposes: ethanol dissolves the organic compound, and water provides the nucleophile (H₂O → –OH after deprotonation).
1,4-dibromobutane reacts with an excess of ethanolic sodium hydroxide until no further reaction takes place.
What is the relative formula mass of the major organic product?
Options
A 54
B 56
C 74
D 90
Working
Ethanolic NaOH promotes elimination (dehydrohalogenation) of halogenoalkanes. With an excess of reagent and complete reaction, both C–Br units eliminate, forming buta-1,3-diene:
Relative formula mass of : .
Answer
A
A
Background Concept
Ethanolic sodium hydroxide — NaOH dissolved in ethanol — is the classic reagent for elimination (dehydrohalogenation) of halogenoalkanes. In this reaction the hydroxide acts as a base: it abstracts a hydrogen from the carbon adjacent (the β-carbon) to the one bearing the halogen, the halogen leaves as a halide ion, and an H–X unit is removed overall. The result is the formation of a C=C double bond. Ethanol is a poor solvent for nucleophilic substitution (substitution requires water to solvate the ions and favours the SN2/SN1 pathway), so with ethanolic NaOH elimination dominates. By contrast, aqueous NaOH would favour nucleophilic substitution, replacing the halogen with an –OH group. This solvent switch — ethanol versus water — is the key controlling factor in this question.
Understanding the Question
We start with 1,4-dibromobutane, — a straight chain of four carbons with a bromine atom on each end carbon. The reagent is an excess of ethanolic NaOH and the reaction is allowed to proceed until no further reaction takes place, so both C–Br bonds react. Because each elimination removes one HBr and creates one double bond, two eliminations will occur here — one at each end of the chain — giving a diene. The task is to identify this major organic product and work out its relative formula mass, then choose the matching option.
Approach
The cleanest way is to ask: what happens to a four-carbon dihalide when it is forced to eliminate completely? Each elimination removes one H and one Br (as HBr) and makes one C=C. Doing this twice on 1,4-dibromobutane converts the two terminal –CH2Br groups into =CH2 and =CH– units, producing buta-1,3-diene, CH2=CH–CH=CH2. Once the molecular formula (C4H6) is known, the relative formula mass is a trivial sum: Mr = 4×12 + 6×1 = 54.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
-
Identify the reaction type. Ethanolic NaOH is the textbook elimination reagent. The hydroxide acts as a base, not as a nucleophile, because ethanol does not solvate the incipient ions well enough to favour substitution.
-
First elimination. Removing a β-hydrogen and the bromine at C1 gives 4-bromobut-1-ene: .
-
Second elimination. The remaining –CH2CH2Br fragment undergoes the same reaction at the other end of the chain, giving CH2=CH–CH=CH2, buta-1,3-diene. The product is conjugated (alternating single and double bonds), which makes it thermodynamically stable and the favoured major product.
-
Net change. The starting dihalide loses two HBr molecules; the molecular formula goes from C4H8Br2 to C4H6.
-
Relative formula mass. . Option A is correct.
Why the distractors are wrong:
o Option B (56) would be C4H8 — an alkene with only one double bond, the result of a single elimination. The question explicitly says excess NaOH until no further reaction, so the second elimination also goes to completion.
- Option D (90) would be C4H10O2, butane-1,4-diol — the product of double nucleophilic substitution by OH– in aqueous NaOH. Choosing this means confusing ethanolic NaOH (elimination) with aqueous NaOH (substitution).
o Option C (74) would be C4H10O, e.g. butan-1-ol — again a substitution outcome. None of the substitution-based products matches complete elimination, so the correct choice is A (54).
Key Takeaways
- The solvent decides the mechanism: ethanolic NaOH → elimination; aqueous NaOH → substitution.
- A dihalogenoalkane can eliminate more than once — with excess reagent and complete reaction, expect a diene.
- Conjugated dienes (alternating double bonds) are stabilised and are the preferred products of successive eliminations.
- Relative formula mass is the sum of (relative atomic mass × number of atoms): for C4H6 it is 48 + 6 = 54.
Common Mistakes
- Using substitution instead of elimination: gives the diol (Mr 90) rather than the diene (54). Check the solvent first.
- Stopping after one elimination: gives an alkene (C4H8, Mr 56). The phrase "excess ... until no further reaction" signals complete double elimination.
- Losing count of atoms: each elimination removes one H and one Br; two eliminations remove 2 HBr, so the product is C4H6, not C4H8.
- Misreading the question: the answer is the fully eliminated major organic product, not an intermediate bromoalkene.
Things to Be Careful About
- Always note whether the reagent is ethanolic or aqueous NaOH before choosing between elimination and substitution.
- Count the hydrogen atoms in the diene carefully: C4H6 (not C4H8).
o In the Mr sum, use the number of atoms of each element in the product, not in the original dihalide. - If asked to write the equation, balance it and include the stoichiometry (two HBr are produced).
A small section of a polymer produced from two monomers is shown.
What are the two monomers?
Options
A but-1-ene and propene
B but-2-ene and propene
C ethene and pent-2-ene
D methylpropene and propene
Working
In an addition polymer the C=C bond of each monomer opens and the monomers join end-to-end. The section shown is built from two alternating repeat units:
- comes from (methylpropene).
- comes from (propene).
These two units alternate to give the polymer shown.
Answer
D (methylpropene and propene)
D
Background Concept
Addition polymerisation is the process in which many alkene monomers join together by opening their carbon–carbon double bonds. Each monomer contributes two carbon atoms to the polymer backbone, and the substituent groups attached to those carbons remain intact in the polymer. To identify the monomers from a polymer structure, you split the backbone into two-carbon units and re-form a double bond between each pair of carbons, restoring the original alkene.
In a copolymer made from two different monomers, the repeat units appear alternately along the chain. Each repeat unit corresponds to one monomer molecule.
Understanding the Question
The question shows a short section of a polymer chain and asks which two alkene monomers were used to make it. The polymer section is:
The key task is to divide this chain into the two monomer-derived units and identify the alkene that each came from. The command is essentially "identify" — you need to recognise the structure of each monomer from its contribution to the polymer backbone.
Approach
The strategy is to look for the two-carbon repeating pattern. Each monomer in an addition polymer contributes a two-carbon segment. In this copolymer, the chain alternates between two different two-carbon units:
- — a CH2 carbon bonded to a carbon carrying two methyl groups.
- — a CH carbon carrying one methyl group, bonded to a CH2 carbon.
For each unit, re-form the double bond between the two backbone carbons and write the alkene.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Unit 1:
The two backbone carbons are CH2 and C(CH3)2. Re-forming the double bond between them gives:
This is methylpropene (2-methylpropene).
Unit 2:
The two backbone carbons are CH(CH3) and CH2. Re-forming the double bond gives:
This is propene.
So the two monomers are methylpropene and propene, which is option D.
Why the other options fail:
- A (but-1-ene and propene): But-1-ene, , would give a backbone unit carrying an ethyl group, not two methyl groups on one carbon. The polymer section shows two methyl groups on the same carbon, so this cannot be correct.
- B (but-2-ene and propene): But-2-ene, , would give , with methyl groups on both backbone carbons. The section shows two methyls on one carbon and none on the adjacent CH2, so this does not match.
- C (ethene and pent-2-ene): Ethene would give a plain unit, and pent-2-ene would give with a propyl-type substituent. Neither matches the pattern of two methyl groups on one carbon.
Key Takeaways
- In addition polymers, each monomer contributes a two-carbon backbone unit; the substituents on those carbons identify the monomer.
- To find a monomer from a polymer, split the backbone into two-carbon units and re-form the C=C bond.
- In a copolymer, the repeat units alternate, so each distinct two-carbon pattern corresponds to a different monomer.
Common Mistakes
- Counting carbons incorrectly: A common error is to miscount the methyl substituents and misidentify the monomer. The carbon carrying two CH3 groups is clearly from methylpropene, not from but-1-ene or but-2-ene.
- Forgetting that the double bond is re-formed: Some students try to identify monomers by looking at the polymer without restoring the C=C, leading to confusion about which alkene was used.
- Confusing but-1-ene with methylpropene: But-1-ene has a four-carbon straight chain with the double bond at the end; methylpropene has a branched three-carbon chain. They give different polymer backbones.
Things to Be Careful About
- Check the substituent pattern carefully: two methyl groups on one backbone carbon is the signature of methylpropene.
- Remember that the polymer section shown is only a small part of a much longer chain — the ends (the –CH2– at each end) are just continuation points, not part of a specific monomer unit.
- The double bond in the monomer is between the two carbons that become adjacent backbone carbons in the polymer; re-forming it correctly is the key step.
The balanced equation for the reaction of X with an excess of acidified is shown.
Compound Y is the only organic product of the reaction.
Which compound is X?
Options
Working
The equation is:
We need to find a compound X that requires exactly 3 atoms of oxygen to fully oxidise with excess acidified , and produces exactly 1 molecule of in the process.
Recall the oxidation requirements for functional groups with excess acidified dichromate:
- Aldehyde (): requires to form a carboxylic acid (). No water is produced.
- Primary alcohol (): requires to form a carboxylic acid (). 1 is produced.
- Secondary alcohol (): requires to form a ketone (). 1 is produced.
- Tertiary alcohol: not oxidised by acidified .
Now evaluate the options based on their functional groups:
-
A: Contains 2 aldehyde groups and 1 secondary alcohol group.
Total required .
Total produced .
This perfectly matches the given equation. -
B: Contains 3 primary alcohol groups.
Total required .
Total produced .
Does not match. -
C (glycerol): Contains 2 primary alcohol groups and 1 secondary alcohol group.
Total required .
Total produced .
Does not match. -
D: Contains 3 aldehyde groups.
Total required .
Total produced .
Does not match (equation requires ).
Answer
A
A
Background Concept
Acidified potassium dichromate(VI), , is a strong oxidising agent commonly used in organic chemistry to oxidise alcohols and aldehydes. The oxidising power is often represented by the symbol .
The extent of oxidation depends on the functional group present and whether the reagent is in excess or limited:
- Primary alcohols () are first oxidised to aldehydes (), and then further oxidised to carboxylic acids () in the presence of excess acidified dichromate. The overall equation is:
Notice that one molecule of water is produced per primary alcohol group oxidised. - Secondary alcohols () are oxidised to ketones (). Ketones cannot be further oxidised under these conditions. The equation is:
Again, one molecule of water is produced per secondary alcohol group. - Aldehydes () are oxidised to carboxylic acids ():
Crucially, no water is produced in this step because the oxygen atom from is incorporated directly into the carboxyl group without the elimination of hydrogen as water. - Tertiary alcohols () have no hydrogen on the carbon bearing the group and are not oxidised by acidified dichromate.
Understanding the Question
The question provides a general oxidation equation:
We are told that is the only organic product, meaning all oxidisable functional groups in are fully converted to a single product molecule. We must identify which of the four structures (A, B, C, D) consumes exactly and produces exactly upon complete oxidation with excess acidified .
Approach
- Identify all oxidisable functional groups in each option (A, B, C, D) from their structural formulas.
- Calculate the total required to fully oxidise those groups with excess acidified dichromate.
- Calculate the total number of molecules produced in those oxidation steps.
- Match the calculated and values against the given equation ( and ).
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Option A:
- Structure:
- Functional groups: 2 aldehyde groups (), 1 secondary alcohol group ().
- Oxidation of 2 aldehydes: . Requires , produces .
- Oxidation of 1 secondary alcohol: . Requires , produces .
- Totals: required, produced. Matches the equation perfectly.
Option B:
- Structure: (2-(hydroxymethyl)propane-1,3-diol)
- Functional groups: 3 primary alcohol groups ().
- Oxidation: .
- Totals: required, produced. Does not match.
Option C:
- Structure: (propane-1,2,3-triol / glycerol)
- Functional groups: 2 primary alcohol groups, 1 secondary alcohol group.
- Oxidation: .
- Totals: required, produced. Does not match.
Option D:
- Structure: (2-formylpropanedial / malonaldehyde derivative)
- Functional groups: 3 aldehyde groups ().
- Oxidation: .
- Totals: required, produced. Does not match (the equation explicitly includes on the product side).
Key Takeaways
- When using notation, carefully track both the oxygen atoms consumed and the water molecules produced. Aldehyde oxidation consumes but does not produce water; alcohol oxidation consumes and produces water.
- With excess acidified dichromate, primary alcohols and aldehydes both end up as carboxylic acids. Secondary alcohols end up as ketones. Tertiary alcohols do not react.
- Balancing the overall redox equation using is a powerful way to deduce the functional groups present in an unknown compound.
Common Mistakes
- Ignoring water production: Students often remember that are needed for Option D (3 aldehydes) and select it, forgetting that the oxidation of aldehydes to carboxylic acids does not produce water. The equation explicitly shows , which is the key discriminator.
- Miscounting functional groups: Carefully reading displayed formulas is essential. For example, in Option A, the branched group is a secondary alcohol, not a primary one. Counting it as a primary alcohol would lead to an incorrect count.
- Assuming all produce water: Remember that the oxygen from goes into the product molecule in aldehyde oxidation, whereas in alcohol oxidation, the oxygen from combines with the hydrogens from the alcohol to form water.
Things to Be Careful About
- State symbols and equation balancing: The given equation is a skeletal representation using . Ensure your functional group oxidation equations are balanced with respect to both and .
- Excess reagent: The phrase "excess of acidified " is critical. If the reagent were limited or distilled conditions were used, primary alcohols might stop at the aldehyde stage. Here, full oxidation to carboxylic acids is guaranteed.
- Structural interpretation: Displayed formulas can be tricky. Always trace the carbon chain and identify every bond to correctly classify alcohols as primary, secondary, or tertiary, and identify aldehydes versus ketones.
Three mixtures are heated under reflux.
Which mixtures will produce sodium propanoate as one product?
Options
A 1, 2 and 3
B 1 and 2 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 3 only
Working
Mixture 1 — reduces the aldehyde to a primary alcohol:
No sodium propanoate is formed.
Mixture 2 — sodium metal reacts with the alcohol to give a sodium alkoxide and hydrogen:
This is sodium propan-1-olate (sodium propoxide), not sodium propanoate.
Mixture 3 — hot aqueous hydrolyses the nitrile to a carboxylate salt and ammonia:
Sodium propanoate is produced.
Only mixture 3 gives sodium propanoate.
Answer
D
D
Background Concept
Sodium propanoate is the sodium salt of propanoic acid, . Its anion contains the carboxylate group, . To produce it from an organic starting material, the carbon skeleton must be converted into a carboxylate group under alkaline conditions.
Three standard reactions are relevant here:
- is a reducing agent. It reduces aldehydes and ketones to alcohols, not to carboxylic acids or their salts.
- Sodium metal reacts with an alcohol at the bond to give a sodium alkoxide and hydrogen gas.
- A nitrile, , is hydrolysed by hot aqueous to the sodium salt of the carboxylic acid, , together with ammonia.
Understanding the Question
The question lists three mixtures and asks which, when heated under reflux, produce sodium propanoate as one product. Reflux means heating with a condenser so that volatile components are not lost; it is the normal condition for nitrile hydrolysis. We must test each mixture and compare its product with sodium propanoate.
Approach
For each mixture, identify the functional group and the reagent, then recall the characteristic reaction. Write the organic product and check whether it is the carboxylate salt . Combine the true statements and select the matching option.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Mixture 1. Propanal is an aldehyde. supplies hydride ions, which attack the electrophilic carbonyl carbon. The aldehyde is reduced to a primary alcohol:
The product is propan-1-ol, not sodium propanoate. Statement 1 is false.
Mixture 2. Propan-1-ol is an alcohol. Sodium metal replaces the hydrogen of the group:
The product is sodium propan-1-olate (sodium propoxide). Its anion is , not , so it is not sodium propanoate. Statement 2 is false.
Mixture 3. Propanenitrile has the group . With hot aqueous , the nitrile is hydrolysed. The carbon of the nitrile group becomes part of a carboxylate group, and the nitrogen is released as ammonia:
Sodium propanoate is one product. Statement 3 is true.
Only statement 3 is true, so the correct option is D.
Key Takeaways
- Nitriles hydrolyse with hot aqueous alkali to carboxylate salts; acidification of the salt gives the carboxylic acid.
- is a reducing agent: it converts aldehydes/ketones to alcohols.
- Sodium metal converts alcohols to alkoxides, not carboxylates.
- Always identify the anion when deciding whether a sodium salt is a carboxylate salt.
Common Mistakes
- Thinking that oxidises an aldehyde to an acid. It reduces the aldehyde to an alcohol.
- Confusing a sodium alkoxide, , with a sodium carboxylate, .
- Forgetting that alkaline hydrolysis of a nitrile gives the salt directly; if dilute acid were used, the product would be the carboxylic acid.
- Assuming that any mixture containing sodium gives sodium propanoate; the anion must be checked.
Things to Be Careful About
- Write sodium propanoate as , not as an alkoxide.
- In nitrile hydrolysis, the nitrogen leaves as ammonia, .
- Reflux is important for the nitrile hydrolysis; it provides the sustained heating needed.
- Balance equations and include ionic charges where relevant.
Which compound is a product of the hydrolysis of using aqueous sodium hydroxide?
Options
A
B
C
D
Working
The ester is propyl ethanoate: has an acyl group and an alkyl group .
With aqueous , base hydrolysis gives the sodium salt of the carboxylic acid and an alcohol:
The carboxylate salt product is sodium ethanoate, .
Answer
A
A
Background Concept
Esters have the general structure : an acyl group joined through a single-bonded oxygen to an alkyl group . They are formed from a carboxylic acid and an alcohol, and hydrolysis reverses this formation. Under acidic conditions the products are the carboxylic acid and the alcohol. Under basic conditions (aqueous ), hydroxide ion attacks the electron-deficient carbonyl carbon; after the tetrahedral intermediate collapses, a carboxylate ion and an alkoxide ion are formed. In water the alkoxide is immediately protonated to the alcohol, while the carboxylic acid is neutralised by the base to its sodium salt. This base hydrolysis is often called saponification.
Understanding the Question
The compound is an ester. The group is the ester link: the left-hand side, , is the acyl group, and the right-hand side, , is the alkyl group. The question asks which compound is a product when this ester is hydrolysed with aqueous sodium hydroxide. The key is to recognise that aqueous gives the sodium carboxylate salt, not the free acid, and an alcohol.
Approach
Split the ester into its two parts at the single bond. Identify the acyl group, which determines the carboxylate salt, and the alkyl group, which determines the alcohol. Then apply the rule for base hydrolysis: . Finally match the carboxylate salt with the options.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
- Write the ester in a clearer way: . The acyl group is , so the salt formed will be ethanoate, .
- The alkyl group is , a propyl group, so the alcohol formed is propan-1-ol, .
- In aqueous , the carboxylic acid that would be produced is immediately neutralised: . Therefore the carboxylate-containing product is sodium ethanoate.
- Option A is , which is exactly sodium ethanoate.
- Option B is the free acid, which would be the product of acid hydrolysis, not hydrolysis by .
- Option C is a sodium alkoxide, . The alcohol formed is not deprotonated to a significant extent in aqueous solution, so this is not the product.
- Option D is sodium butanoate, . This would require the acyl group to be , but in the ester the acyl group is ; the propyl group is attached to oxygen, not to the carbonyl carbon.
Key Takeaways
- Base hydrolysis of an ester gives a carboxylate salt and an alcohol; acid hydrolysis gives a carboxylic acid and an alcohol.
- The acyl group on the carbonyl side determines the carboxylate salt; the alkyl group on the oxygen side determines the alcohol.
- In aqueous , any free acid formed is neutralised to its sodium salt.
Common Mistakes
- Choosing B because the ester link is broken to give the acid, without remembering that converts the acid to its salt.
- Choosing C by thinking the alcohol part is released as an alkoxide; in water the alcohol remains as , not .
- Choosing D by misreading the formula and placing the propyl group on the carbonyl carbon instead of on the oxygen.
- Writing an unbalanced or incorrectly structured hydrolysis equation.
Things to Be Careful About
- Read the line formula carefully: in , the is the ester link, not a carboxyl group.
- Use the correct product form: with aqueous , write the carboxylate as , not as .
- The alcohol product is written as a neutral alcohol, not as an alkoxide, in aqueous conditions.
- Match the acyl group exactly: gives ethanoate, not butanoate.
Compound Q reacts when heated with in the presence of a catalyst to produce compound R.
Molecules of compound R each contain four carbon atoms.
What is compound Q?
Options
Working
Compound Q reacts with to form compound R. This is a nucleophilic addition reaction across the bond, typical of aldehydes and ketones. The group adds to the carbonyl carbon, increasing the carbon chain length by one.
We are given that compound R has four carbon atoms. Therefore, compound Q must have three carbon atoms (since ).
Let us analyse the options:
- A (propanoic acid): Contains 3 carbons. Carboxylic acids do not undergo nucleophilic addition with to extend the chain.
- B (butanone): The skeletal structure shows a 4-carbon chain (). Reaction with would produce a 5-carbon hydroxynitrile.
- C (1-chlorobutane): Contains 4 carbons. Alkyl halides react with (not ) in nucleophilic substitution, and this would produce a 5-carbon product.
- D (propanal): The skeletal structure shows a 3-carbon aldehyde (). Reaction with gives 2-hydroxybutanenitrile (), which contains exactly four carbon atoms.
Answer
D
D
Background Concept
Carbonyl compounds (aldehydes and ketones) contain a double bond. The carbon atom is electrophilic due to the polarization of the bond by the electronegative oxygen atom. This makes carbonyl compounds susceptible to nucleophilic addition reactions.
A common reaction is the addition of hydrogen cyanide (), usually catalyzed by a base (which generates the nucleophile ). The cyanide ion attacks the carbonyl carbon, and the oxygen picks up a proton. This forms a hydroxynitrile (also called a cyanohydrin). Crucially, this reaction adds one carbon atom to the original chain, which is a useful method for building carbon skeletons in organic synthesis.
Understanding the Question
We are given a reaction: Compound Q + Compound R.
We are told that Compound R has four carbon atoms.
We need to identify Compound Q from four skeletal structures (A, B, C, D).
The key to solving this is to recognize the type of reaction and count the carbon atoms. Since adds a group (1 carbon), Compound Q must have carbon atoms if it undergoes this addition reaction. We also need to ensure Q is a compound that actually reacts with .
Approach
- Identify the reaction type: Reaction with is characteristic of nucleophilic addition to aldehydes and ketones. Carboxylic acids and alkyl halides do not typically undergo this specific reaction under these conditions (alkyl halides react with , not , via substitution).
- Count carbons in the product: Product R has 4 carbons. Since the reaction adds 1 carbon from , reactant Q must have 3 carbons.
- Evaluate options: Check each structure for its functional group and carbon count.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
- Option A (propanoic acid, ): This is a carboxylic acid with 3 carbons. Carboxylic acids do not undergo nucleophilic addition with . The is part of the carboxyl group and is much less electrophilic; instead, acids react with bases or undergo substitution at the group. So, A is incorrect.
- Option B (butanone, ): Looking at the skeletal structure, there is a 4-carbon chain with a ketone group at position 2. Although ketones react with , butanone has 4 carbons. Adding would produce a hydroxynitrile with carbons. This does not match the requirement of 4 carbons in R. So, B is incorrect.
- Option C (1-chlorobutane, ): This is a haloalkane with 4 carbons. Haloalkanes react with cyanide ions () from or in nucleophilic substitution to form nitriles. is a weak acid and a poor source of nucleophilic ; it does not typically react with haloalkanes. Even if it did, the product would have 5 carbons. So, C is incorrect.
- Option D (propanal, ): This is an aldehyde with 3 carbons. Aldehydes readily undergo nucleophilic addition with (base-catalyzed). The reaction is: The product is 2-hydroxybutanenitrile. Counting the carbons: 3 from propanal + 1 from = 4 carbons. This matches all the given information. So, D is correct.
Key Takeaways
- addition is a test for aldehydes and ketones (nucleophilic addition to ).
- This reaction extends the carbon chain by one carbon atom (adding a group).
- Always count carbon atoms carefully in skeletal structures to track chain length changes.
Common Mistakes
- Miscounting carbons in skeletal structures: Option B is butanone (4 carbons), not propanone. Students might misread the zigzag and think it's a 3-carbon ketone. If they thought B was propanone (, 3 carbons), they might incorrectly choose it. However, the image clearly shows a 4-carbon chain (butanone).
- Confusing reagents: Thinking haloalkanes (C) react with . They require / in ethanol/water for nucleophilic substitution. is used specifically for carbonyl addition.
- Ignoring the carbon count: Assuming any carbonyl compound works without checking if the product has the correct number of carbons.
Things to Be Careful About
- Skeletal structure interpretation: Ensure you count vertices and ends correctly. In B, the ends are carbons, and the vertex with the double bond O is a carbon. = 4 carbons.
- Reaction conditions: The question specifies "heated with in the presence of a catalyst". This is the standard condition for nucleophilic addition of cyanide to carbonyls (usually a trace of or to generate ). Carboxylic acids and haloalkanes do not follow this pathway.
The table shows the reagents and products of three reactions.
| reagents | products | |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | ethanoic acid + | |
| 2 | ethanoic acid + | |
| 3 | ethanoic acid + |
Which rows are correct?
Options
A 1, 2 and 3
B 1 and 2 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 2 and 3 only
Working
Row 1: ethanoic acid + gives a salt, water and — correct.
Row 2: ethanoic acid + Mg gives magnesium ethanoate and , not — incorrect.
Row 3: ethanoic acid + is esterification, giving methyl ethanoate + water — correct.
Answer
C (1 and 3 only)
C
Background Concept
Carboxylic acids () behave as weak acids. The acidic hydrogen is on the group of the carboxyl group. They react with:
- Carbonates () to give a salt, water and carbon dioxide gas.
- Metals (such as Mg) to give a salt and hydrogen gas.
- Alcohols in an esterification (condensation) reaction to give an ester and water.
Each reaction type has a characteristic product set, and the question tests whether you can match the correct products to the correct reagent.
Understanding the Question
Three reactions of ethanoic acid are listed with their products. You must judge each row independently and then select the option that names the correct combination of rows. The trap is in row 2: the products look plausible, but the gas produced by an acid reacting with a metal is hydrogen, not water.
Approach
For each row, write the expected products from the known chemistry, then compare with the table.
- Acid + carbonate: salt + water + .
- Acid + metal: salt + .
- Acid + alcohol: ester + water.
Then select the option that includes exactly the correct rows.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Row 1 — correct.
Ethanoic acid reacts with sodium carbonate:
The table lists sodium ethanoate, water and carbon dioxide — the correct products. (The table's equation is not balanced, but the products are correct, which is what the question asks.)
Row 2 — incorrect.
Ethanoic acid reacts with magnesium metal:
The metal displaces hydrogen from the acid, so the gas is hydrogen, not water. The table wrongly gives as the second product. This is the key distractor.
Row 3 — correct.
Ethanoic acid reacts with methanol in an esterification (condensation) reaction:
Methyl ethanoate and water are formed — correct.
Since rows 1 and 3 are correct and row 2 is incorrect, the answer is C.
Key Takeaways
- Carboxylic acid + carbonate → salt + water + .
- Carboxylic acid + metal → salt + .
- Carboxylic acid + alcohol → ester + water (esterification).
- Read product lists carefully: the gas from an acid–metal reaction is always hydrogen.
Common Mistakes
- Choosing row 2 as correct because the salt is right, overlooking that the gas should be , not .
- Forgetting that esterification produces water as a by-product, which makes row 3 look suspicious but is actually correct.
Things to Be Careful About
- The table's equations are not balanced; the question only asks whether the products are correct, so do not reject a row merely because the equation is unbalanced.
- Distinguish the two "gas" reactions: carbonate gives , metal gives .
- In esterification the reaction is reversible, so the arrow is appropriate, but the products are still ester + water.
Seven aldehydes and ketones
- contain only one oxygen atom per molecule
- have four or fewer carbon atoms in their structures.
Alkaline is added to each of these carbonyl compounds separately.
How many of these carbonyl compounds produce a yellow precipitate with alkaline ?
Options
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4
Working
The iodoform test (alkaline ) gives a yellow precipitate of only for compounds containing the group (or those oxidised to it).
The seven aldehydes and ketones with four or fewer carbons and one oxygen are:
- Aldehydes: methanal, ethanal, propanal, butanal, 2-methylpropanal
- Ketones: propanone, butanone
Only those with a group give a positive test:
- ethanal ()
- propanone ()
- butanone ()
That is 3 compounds.
Answer
C
C
Background Concept
The iodoform (tri-iodomethane) test uses alkaline iodine, in , and gives a pale yellow precipitate of (iodoform) with a characteristic antiseptic smell. The test is positive for:
- methyl ketones, i.e. compounds with a group, and
- compounds that can be oxidised to a methyl ketone, such as ethanol and secondary alcohols with a group.
For aldehydes and ketones, the key structural requirement is simply the presence of the unit attached to the carbonyl carbon.
Understanding the Question
The question tells us there are exactly seven aldehydes and ketones that each contain one oxygen atom and have four or fewer carbon atoms. We must count how many of these seven give a positive iodoform test.
Approach
- List all possible aldehydes and ketones with 4 or fewer carbons and one oxygen.
- For each, check whether it contains a group.
- Count those that do.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Step 1 — Enumerate the aldehydes.
With up to 4 carbons:
- methanal, (1C)
- ethanal, (2C)
- propanal, (3C)
- butanal, (4C)
- 2-methylpropanal, (4C, branched)
That is 5 aldehydes.
Step 2 — Enumerate the ketones.
- propanone, (3C)
- butanone, (4C)
That is 2 ketones. Total = 5 + 2 = 7, matching the question.
Step 3 — Apply the iodoform condition.
A positive test requires a group:
- ethanal: → has → positive
- propanone: → positive
- butanone: → positive
- methanal, propanal, butanal, 2-methylpropanal → no → negative
Step 4 — Count.
3 compounds give a yellow precipitate. Answer: C.
Key Takeaways
The iodoform test is a quick way to recognise a methyl ketone () or a secondary alcohol with a group. Among simple aldehydes, only ethanal gives a positive test because it is the only one with a unit.
Common Mistakes
- Thinking all aldehydes give a positive iodoform test. Only ethanal does, because only it has the group.
- Forgetting the branched aldehyde 2-methylpropanal, which is still a 4-carbon aldehyde.
- Confusing the iodoform test with the 2,4-DNPH test, which detects all carbonyls (aldehydes and ketones) — that would give a different count.
Things to Be Careful About
- The requirement is the group attached to the carbonyl carbon, not merely a methyl group anywhere in the molecule.
- Count the structural isomers correctly: both butanal and 2-methylpropanal are 4-carbon aldehydes.
- The yellow precipitate is (tri-iodomethane), not silver iodide or anything else.
Some properties of compound X are listed.
- X reacts with exactly oxygen when completely combusted.
- X does not react when heated with acidified .
What are the possible identities of X?
Options
A 1 and 3
B 2 and 4
C 3 only
D 4 only
Working
Step 1: Determine the molecular formula from the combustion data.
The general equation for the complete combustion of an organic compound is:
Given that of X reacts with of :
Check the molecular formulas of the four compounds:
- 1 (2,2-dimethylbutan-1-ol): (Incorrect)
- 2 (1-methylcyclopentanol): (Correct)
- 3 (3,3-dimethylbutan-2-ol): (Incorrect)
- 4 (hexan-3-one): (Correct)
Compounds 2 and 4 satisfy the combustion condition.
Step 2: Check the reaction with acidified .
Acidified potassium manganate(VII) is a strong oxidising agent:
- Primary alcohols (e.g., 1) are oxidised to carboxylic acids.
- Secondary alcohols (e.g., 3) are oxidised to ketones.
- Tertiary alcohols (e.g., 2) have no hydrogen atom on the carbon bearing the group and do not react.
- Ketones (e.g., 4) are resistant to oxidation by acidified and do not react.
Both compounds 2 (a tertiary alcohol) and 4 (a ketone) do not react with acidified .
Answer
B (2 and 4)
B
Background Concept
Organic compounds containing carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen can be completely combusted in excess oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water. The stoichiometry of this reaction depends on the molecular formula . The number of moles of oxygen required per mole of compound is given by .
Acidified potassium manganate(VII) () is a strong oxidising agent used to test for reducible functional groups. Its reactivity with alcohols depends on their classification:
- Primary alcohols () are oxidised first to aldehydes and then to carboxylic acids.
- Secondary alcohols () are oxidised to ketones.
- Tertiary alcohols () cannot be oxidised under normal conditions because the carbon atom bearing the hydroxyl group has no hydrogen atom to lose. The and bonds are too strong to be broken by .
- Ketones are already at a high oxidation state at the carbonyl carbon and do not react with acidified .
Understanding the Question
The question provides two properties of an unknown compound X and asks to identify which of the four given structures could be X.
- Property 1: Combustion requires exactly of per mole of X.
- Property 2: X does not react with heated acidified .
The four structures are:
- 2,2-dimethylbutan-1-ol (primary alcohol, )
- 1-methylcyclopentanol (tertiary alcohol, )
- 3,3-dimethylbutan-2-ol (secondary alcohol, )
- hexan-3-one (ketone, )
Approach
First, use the combustion data to eliminate compounds that do not require exactly of oxygen. Calculate the moles of needed for each molecular formula. This will narrow the candidates down to those with the formula .
Second, apply the rules for oxidation by acidified to the remaining candidates. Identify which ones are tertiary alcohols or ketones, as these will not react.
Step-by-Step Reasoning
Step 1: Combustion stoichiometry
Write the general combustion equation:
Set the oxygen coefficient equal to 8.5:
Test each structure:
- Structure 1: . . Fails.
- Structure 2: . . Passes.
- Structure 3: . . Fails.
- Structure 4: . . Passes.
Only structures 2 and 4 satisfy the first condition.
Step 2: Oxidation test
Examine the functional groups in the remaining candidates:
- Structure 2 is 1-methylcyclopentanol. The carbon bonded to the group is also bonded to a methyl group and two ring carbons. It is a tertiary alcohol. Tertiary alcohols do not react with acidified .
- Structure 4 is hexan-3-one. It is a ketone. Ketones do not react with acidified .
Both structures 2 and 4 satisfy the second condition. Therefore, X could be either 2 or 4.
Key Takeaways
- The moles of oxygen required for complete combustion of is . This is a quick way to check molecular formulas against combustion data.
- Acidified oxidises primary and secondary alcohols but not tertiary alcohols or ketones. Classifying the alcohol correctly is essential.
Common Mistakes
- Forgetting to subtract when calculating the oxygen required for combustion of oxygen-containing compounds. This leads to incorrect mole values for alcohols and ketones.
- Misclassifying an alcohol. For example, thinking 1-methylcyclopentanol is a secondary alcohol because it has an group on a ring. The classification depends on how many carbon atoms are attached to the carbon, not whether it is on a chain or a ring.
- Assuming ketones react with . While very strong oxidants can cleave ketones, standard acidified does not oxidise them under typical test conditions.
Things to Be Careful About
- Always count the total number of carbon and hydrogen atoms carefully in skeletal structures. For example, the methyl group on the cyclopentane ring in structure 2 adds one carbon and three hydrogens to the ring fragment, giving .
- Ensure the oxygen coefficient in the combustion equation is correctly balanced. The oxygen atoms in the fuel itself reduce the amount of external needed, hence the term.
A sample of magnesium contains the isotopes , and only.
The percentage abundance of and is the same.
The relative atomic mass of magnesium in the sample is .
What is the percentage abundance of ?
Options
A
B
C
D
Working
Let be the percentage abundance of . Then each of and has abundance .
Answer
D
D
Background Concept
The relative atomic mass, , of an element is the weighted average of the masses of its naturally occurring isotopes, taking into account their relative abundances. For isotopes with mass numbers 24, 25 and 26 (assuming each nucleon has mass close to 1), the contribution of each isotope is its mass number multiplied by its fractional abundance. The sum of all fractional abundances is 1 (or 100%). Since the question gives that the abundances of and are equal, there is only one unknown, the abundance of , which can be solved from the given .
Understanding the Question
We are told a sample contains only three isotopes of magnesium: , , . The abundances of and are equal. The relative atomic mass is 24.3. We need to find the percentage abundance of . This is a weighted average problem with one unknown.
Approach
Let the percentage abundance of be . Then the remaining percentage, , is shared equally between and , so each has abundance . Write the expression for as the sum of each isotope's mass number multiplied by its fractional abundance, set it equal to 24.3, and solve for .
Step-by-Step Reasoning
- Let be the percentage abundance of .
- Since only three isotopes are present, the sum of percentages is 100: , where are the abundances of and . Hence .
- The relative atomic mass is:
- Combine the two equal terms: , so the numerator is .
- Since , the equation becomes:
- Multiply both sides by 100:
- Simplify: , so , giving .
- Therefore the abundance of is 80%, option D.
Check: If , then and each have 10%. The weighted average is . This confirms the answer.
Key Takeaways
- Relative atomic mass is a weighted average, not a simple mean.
- When abundances are related, express all unknowns in terms of one variable.
- Always check that the percentages sum to 100 and the weighted average matches the given value.
Common Mistakes
- A common mistake is to assume that because and have equal abundances, each is equal to rather than .
- Forgetting to divide by 100 when using percentage abundances in the weighted average.
- Algebraic sign errors when solving ; careful with the negative coefficient of .
Things to Be Careful About
- Use percentage abundances directly but divide the weighted sum by 100, or convert to fractions.
- The mass numbers are approximate isotopic masses; the given is consistent with the abundance pattern.
- Ensure the final answer is a percentage, not a fraction.
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